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French difference between 'I was caught in a downpour' and 'I have been caught in a downpour'

DL gives 'I was caught in a downpour' as the translation for "J'ai été pris sous une averse. ", I think this is wrong and it should be 'I have been caught in a downpour' which is not accepted.

Please see my discussion on https://www.duolingo.com/comment/27009295

Does French distinguish between the two different tenses we have in English?

April 22, 2018



French doesn't have the " have been " tense, they just use the present or past tense.


FYI: I posted a semi-long comment on Anneduol1ngo's original question. I'd be curious what you'd add/correct. https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/27009295$comment_id=27030406


I think there are two separate issues here.

One is whether your translation is sufficiently accurate to be added to the list of right answers.

The second, and more interesting, issue is whether French distinguishes between something in the indeterminate past ("I was caught in a rainstorm") and something in a more immediate past tense ("I have been caught in a rainstorm"). A third, more distant, past tense time frame would be "I had been caught in a rainstorm")


I agree.

The first issue is why I didn't flag it; because I wasn't sure.

The second is really what I want to know, and is the one that interests me. However, if my answer, as marked incorrect by DL is actually acceptable then I would assume that French does not distinguish these tenses. I have scan-read W-Ruggles-Wolfe's comment and it looks as if it might give the answer, but I need to read it with a pen and paper in my hand making notes in order to understand it. Probably due to the fact I am from the older generation, much more comfortable with paper than screen!

I wonder why a mod doesn't jump in and adjudicate here.


I'm curious re: your feedback to my comment (as I said, I'm still learning). The grammar point you raised is one that interests me as well.

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