"I have felt the baby."
Translation:He sentido al bebé.
The baby is a person. A definite person and a direct object of the sentence, so it gets the personal a. And that combined with the article el becomes al.
Also because "bebe" is the "tercera persona singular del presente de indicativo" of the verb "beber" (to drink)
I usually give the benefit of the doubt about placing accents if there's no indication that the asker can even make accented letters. English keyboards have kind of an issue there. :´)
If by "felt" this sentence means "physically touched", wouldn't the correct translation be "He tocado al bebé."?
If you interpret it like that, using tocar would be an appropriate translation. But then again you'd usually say "touched the baby" in English.
The original sentence means that the baby touched you. Or kicked your belly from the inside.
but there are 27 different countrys that use the spanish lanuage differently so this may be right to them but the traditional spanish that you guys are studying in your classes are different from any other
That issue was more about the English translation than the Spanish sentence. Sentir is something passive, in any Spanish dialect, "to experience sensations produced by external or internal causes" (def. 1).
It's okay as well, please report it. The sentence has just been born, too. :)
Many native speakers that i know say that they would just use the el instead of the contracted form and it doesn't matter it is not grammatically incorrect to use "el" in real life so why is it here?
The "a" is mandatory when using "perception" verbs, like "see", "feel", "touch" or "hear" connected with people. That doesn't mean that all native speakers use their language following 100 % the rule. Actually the romance variations of Northwestern Spain tend to drop prepositions.
Because we prefer treating babies as humans. :)
Using the "personal a" for babies is a lot more common than not using it.
Yes. Whenever you have the preposition a together with the masculine article el, you need to collapse them to al. It's not optional.
Is it incorrect to have a direct object pronoun here as in, "Lo he sentido al bebé" ? It seems that sometimes a redundant direct object pronoun is used and sometimes not.
It is very uncommon, at least. Direct object pronouns should only be used if the actual direct object is not a noun.
- Lo he sentido.
- Lo he sentido a él.
- But: He sentido al bebé.
That redundancy would ask for a comma, the reason is that you are adding an explanatory bit to the object "lo" (you can google "uso de coma explicativa"): Lo he sentido, al bebé.
The original sentence is asking for the present perfect tense: "I have felt" - "Yo he sentido". Also the baby needs a "personal a".
Since the baby is a person and the direct object in this sentence, it gets the "personal a". And "a el" has to be collapsed to al.