"I like beer, but I do not drink it."
Translation:Eu gosto de cerveja, mas eu não bebo.
If the English sentence is "I do not drink it" (emphasizing the 'it' here), then why is "não a bebo" incorrect? "não bebo" is only I don't drink, isn't the 'it' missing then?
Using "a" makes the portuguese sentence closer to the english one.
Exactly. It would get them closer in meaning, but we just don't use it that way. It's about culture.
It seems as though cerveja is a feminine word, and thus would be acceptably paired with gosto DA rather than DE. Am I wrong?
Da is specific. For general sense, as in this sentence, use "de".
So I would say gosto da if I were to be referencing a particular beer or using the definite form?
I put 'eu gosto de cerveja mas eu não bebo ela' and it was wrong.
So it's not correct to use 'ela' as 'it' in this case?
It's not right.
Using "ela" as an object is right only with prepositions: para ela, dela.
You could say "não a bebo". In informal speeches, some people say beber ela. But in this sentence, there is really not one beer being referred to. It's better to just say "não bebo" (no it at all).
If it were "eu gosto da cerveja", then the beer, or it, would be there.
That should be "a bebo", since cerveja is not a masculine noun.
But we would not use "it" in Portuguese, so you can say just "bebo" =)
I decided to omit the "eu" before "não", and it was incorrect. Why? Doesn't "bebo" imply the "eu"?
Yes, it can be omitted most of the time, but DL works with the sentences it has in its database. There are many options to use, but they are added little by little....