https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sr12zar

'El verano viente antes' ?= 'Viene antes el verano'?

Can any one explain the difference between the two constructs?

I translate the first as 'the sumer comes before' and the second as 'it comes before the summer'. Thus they are not the same. But a Duolingo's lesson on adverbs says they are the same.

July 4, 2012

3 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Raymond17

They are the same. Someone else asked a similar question before. You can find it here: http://duolingo.com/#/comment/22892

July 4, 2012

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/countrylife4me

They are not the same if you leave the (T) in viente=that is 20 But take out the (T) in viente antes and you have Summer comes before Comes before the summer = Then they are the same.

July 5, 2012

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sr12zar

Thanks Raymond1 -- I begin to see the error of my own/old language ;-)

Thanks countrylife4me -- I too live in the bush, down-under. I have yet to learn to see Spanish words as clearly as you do. It is my mistake!

July 8, 2012
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