'El verano viente antes' ?= 'Viene antes el verano'?

Can any one explain the difference between the two constructs?

I translate the first as 'the sumer comes before' and the second as 'it comes before the summer'. Thus they are not the same. But a Duolingo's lesson on adverbs says they are the same.

6 years ago

  • 14
  • 12
  • 7
  • 5

They are the same. Someone else asked a similar question before. You can find it here:

6 years ago

They are not the same if you leave the (T) in viente=that is 20 But take out the (T) in viente antes and you have Summer comes before Comes before the summer = Then they are the same.

6 years ago

Thanks Raymond1 -- I begin to see the error of my own/old language ;-)

Thanks countrylife4me -- I too live in the bush, down-under. I have yet to learn to see Spanish words as clearly as you do. It is my mistake!

6 years ago
Learn Spanish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.