'El verano viente antes' ?= 'Viene antes el verano'?
Can any one explain the difference between the two constructs?
I translate the first as 'the sumer comes before' and the second as 'it comes before the summer'. Thus they are not the same. But a Duolingo's lesson on adverbs says they are the same.
They are not the same if you leave the (T) in viente=that is 20 But take out the (T) in viente antes and you have Summer comes before Comes before the summer = Then they are the same.
Thanks Raymond1 -- I begin to see the error of my own/old language ;-)
Thanks countrylife4me -- I too live in the bush, down-under. I have yet to learn to see Spanish words as clearly as you do. It is my mistake!