I wrote "having coffee", which we say in English. Had the Spanish word been "bebiendo", I'd have translated "drinking". I'm reporting the error, but won't hold my breath waiting for a correction. Notice that rspreng offers examples of the commonly used "have" in English. I would add that this is not usage found only in bars, but in all situations referring to any type of drink.
I'm just wondering why when they are putting two verbs side by side they are still conjugating the second verb. In college I was told that using the English equivalent (ing) isn't very common in Spanish. Native speakers, I was told don't do that often and when I've listen to Native speakers very seldom to I hear them use gerunds. Instead they leave the second verb in the infinitive form and it can still mean the English equivalent to ing. For example: Ella esta (con accento sobre a) tomar café (accento sobre e) ahora also means: She is drinking coffee now. Just food for thought. I guess the reason we are learning this is because we are learning about gerunds. :)
The second verb is a present participle (gerundio) and not a conjugated form. http://conjugator.reverso.net/conjugation-spanish-verb-tomar.html
I heard they often use the present instead of the present progressive. I have not seen the form you are showing with "está". For the future the progressive is also not very used and that is where I have seen the infinitive used more with "ir a" as in "Ella va a tomar café." http://spanish.about.com/cs/grammar/a/progressive.htm
She is having coffee now. Accepted. It's a delexical structure.
Bebe café...= Toma café...= She's having coffee...