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"Ella quiere que haya menos vino."

Translation:She wants there to be less wine.

March 23, 2013



Quiero que haya más vino. :)


I don't even think we've done the subjunctive part yet.


We haven't, but it seems all of haber is to be taught at once. You sure haven't learned the past form of haber before this lesson, either!


she wants that = produces the subjunctive


Yes. "She wants that - there be less wine". Which is essentially "She wants there to be less wine".


Good literal translation: "She wants that there be less wine". A little clumsy, but a technically correct English subjunctive.
However, I tried it, and was rejected.

The English present subjunctive uses the "base form" of the verb. The base form is the infinitive without the "to". Thus, "Be" is the base form of the verb (infinitive) "to be."

Many people (including DL) change the English subjunctive to an indicative. Here, the indicative is "She wants there to be less wine".



can someone break down how this sentence comes together? why not use ser/estar?


The english translation isn't a word for word translation in spanish. Ella quiere= she wants. "que haya" is subjunctive and literally means "that there is" but that doesn't make sense in english, so they translated it as "there to be" so it makes more sense. An infinitive of ser or estar isn't needed here. haya= haber= to have (there is/there are). It makes sense in spanish. haya is all you need for the verb :)


The subjunctive in English would be, "I want that there be less wine." Sounds odd, but that's how it is. I think your example would work as well ("there to be")


I answered "... that there be less wine" and my answer was marked wrong.


We can only keep reporting it. Maybe they will eventually add that form to the list of correct responses.


xoxua, "that there be less" uses the subjunctive mood for "to be". The subjunctive is not used as often in English as in other languages, so it can sound wrong to people who aren't familiar with it.


Barbara is correct. (tiene razon). Gracias, Barbara.


Reported again today. May 10, 2018


"That there be less" isn't quite correct in English. It would have to be "that there would be less."


Could this also be interpreted as/translated to "She want's to have less wine"? Because I guess that's how you would say it in English.


I don't think so. If it was talking about wine for herself, it would be "Ella quiere tener menos vino". This sentence says that she wants less wine in general.


I would have said yes, because I thought "haya" is the subjunctive for "to have". Can someone explain how we end up with "...she wants there to BE..." instead of "...she wants you/she/he to HAVE"?


"Haya" is the subjunctive for the "haber" version of "to have". It the auxiliary verb, as in "Ella ha bebido el vino", "She has drunk the wine". ("Tiene" is the ownership version of "to have", "She has wine".)

"Haber" is also used for "there exists": "Hay más vino", "There is more wine". That's the meaning used here.


Thanks for your answer. Very helpful. I was hung up on the idea that a verb following querer is usually in the infinitive form. But I guess that isn't always the case?


the subjunctive is something someone desires, but may or may not happen. for example, "quiero que vayas a casa" = I want you to go home. It may or may not happen, whereas something like "Quiero ir a casa" simply means "i want to go home", which is much more definitive. May sound confusing but hope you sort of understand what I'm saying.


I'm lost!!! (And here I was thinking that 'haber' was going to be an easy and quick section!!!!0


It's only confusing because the form of haber here is subjunctive and Duolingo doesn't really go over the subjunctive since it's harder to people who speak english to understand since we don't have the subjunctive in english.


We actually do have the subjunctive in English. e.g. "I recommend that he take two pills a day." In English, the present subjunctive is simply the singular form of the verb. The past subjunctive is the plural form of the word, but this is only apparent with was/were. e.g. "I wish I were the president of the world!!"


I'm sure the vast majority of English speakers are totally unaware if and when they may be using the English subjunctive. I had never heard of it until I started learning Spanish and the parallels between the two languages were pointed out.


Yeah, I use it unconsciously and only when I learned Spanish did I begin to notice it.


You should ask a native Spanish speaker to explain when one should use subjunctive. Just like you've highlighted with English speakers, Spanish speakers won't have a canned answer ready like a non-native advanced Spanish speaker would.


I'm not sure why you're getting downvoted. It's true, people!


Good try. "Were" is the past participle form of "is" (as well as a plural form).
However, more importantly, It is also an exception to the general rules for creating present subjunctive.

However, the present of the subjunctive uses the "base form" of the verb, except for the verb "to be", which uses were regardless of the number of the subject.
The base form is the infinitive without the "to." Thus, "drink", "give" "take", etc.

These verb forms (drink", "give" "take",) are the "base form" as well as being the singular form.

"I recommend that he take two pills a day." "(I demand that you) give it back."
"I wish that you were nicer."
"Were you to earn all As next semester..., (I would let you drive the car.")

"I wish I were the president of the world!!"

“He demanded that his students use a calculator.”
"He asked that they be on time."

However, the past forms of the subjunctive are not the "plural forms" of the verb. See these examples:

Past tense subjunctives: "If the Pacers had won,..." (she would have been happy)
"Had I known you were coming" (I would have...)
"I wish I had lived in Los Angeles,... (when the Lakers were champions)
"Their mother wished that they had come home that day." http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/verbs.htm


Sure we do. This sentence with the subjunctive would be "I want that there be less wine." Maybe we are forgetting how to use it, and DL doesn't like it, but it's there.


Could someone please tell me what the 'Subjunctive' is?


Hola LukeCochrane: Wow! That is a big question! What I mean is it is too much to try to explain here in a few comments. Subjunctive is a mood in the Spanish language that is used a lot more than in English. Technically it is the form of the verb "...relating to or denoting a mood of verbs expressing what is imagined or wished or possible". There are many websites you could search and get more details.

Here is one you could try to get started: http://grammar.about.com/od/rs/g/subjuncterm05.htm ---- or if you really want to get into it, just Google or Bing or use other search engine for "Spanish Subjunctive" and you will get more than you really want to know.

The subjunctive is difficult to understand for most English speakers, but it is absolutely essential in Spanish. I would suggest just continue through the Duolingo exercises and you will pick up a little of it along the way. You will need further study, though, to really understand it and use it.

A great book is "Practice Makes Perfect - Spanish Verb Tenses" by Dorothy Richmond. I highly recommend it, not just for subjunctive, but for all verb tenses.

Buena suerte.


Just to be clear, the subjunctive mood exists in several other languages; French and English included! Sadly it seems to be dying out in English. Hopefully we can revive it.


It's sad to say but even for French speaker (which I am because it's my native language) the Spanish subjunctive is the most difficult tense to use . At least it's the case for me . And even if both Spanish and French are Latin languages , "el presento perfecto" is a tense more related to the "present perfect" than whatever tense in French .


Merci monstre. Hablo francés también.


Muchas gracias por su ayuda. I'll definitely look into it a lot more. For one, I didn't even realise this even existed. Obviously I wasn't taught grammar very well, so it will be good to go over these things. Thanks for your help again.


I found the subjunctive exercises here on SpanishDict to be extremely useful for this unit. http://www.spanishdict.com/grammar

It has lessons that you can read, but me, I like learning through doing, so I just jumped in and worked through all the quizzes. For each question, it explains why the right answer is right.

I started here: http://www.spanishdict.com/topics/practice/68 and just kept going until I eventually got to the end of all the subjunctive quizzes. (It doesn't let you advance until you get 90%, so I got a lot of practice.)


This is where spanish gets difficult and to master is a challenge. But I like the conversations. They are helpful.


What an incredibly awkward sentence. I got it wrong just because I was trying to make it mean something. I put that she wanted to have less wine (thinking it might be an idiom) because this just doesn't make much sense!


Who invited her?


Can the answer "She loves that there is less wine" work?


Sorry. No person in the sentence so the verb is not translated as love, but rathers wants.


Also, the subjunctive would not be used if it meant "She loves that ...". The subjunctive is not used, even with "que", if the main verb implies that what follows the "que" is known to be true. "She loves that there is less wine" implies that she knows for sure that there is less wine.


Ah, that makes sense. Thank you both for your explanation!


If querer only means love with a person, how would one say "she loves wine?"


I would guess: "A ella le encanta el vino."


A ella le gusta el vino. In English we use that word love very widely.


"Ella" in spanish came from "3 singular". If that word is in "3 plural" it should be "Ellas"

People think that vino is with b but v and b have a difference in the way to say it in spanish the B is with your mouth more close than the V.



I can't understand your post, Liane. I must be getting old. Oh, hang on - 3rd person singular and plural regarding "ella". I was taught (in the early 1980s) that the pronunciation of b and v are reversed, in peninsular Spanish. That's how I have been saying them anyway. Your last point seems to say to not write "haya" as "halla". "she wants to find less wine "?


that phrase does not makes sense in english ?


It is ridiculous, DUO should provide at least the very basic descriptions what / when / how different forms of HABER should be used


The english has no meaning


She wants less wine to be there. How this is wrong?


What a futile thing to want.


in a previous example "haya" ( PRESENT subjunctive) was used/translated as "there will be" in a sentence that started out with "he hopes that there will be...." (even though the future subjunctive of haber is "hubiere") and here haya is translated as "there to be" which is also future tense - when is the future subjunctive ( hubiere) used if not for "there will be" or "there to be"...??


jjcthorpe: Future subjunctive? Where have you been studying? Future subjunctive is obsolete. It is not even mentioned in any Spanish school that I know of or in any verb book on the market that I know of . So, anyway, I don't think Duolingo would accept it. CHAU


Ok, good to know it's obsolete. This is where I was getting it from btw http://www.123teachme.com/spanish_verb_conjugation/haber. Thanks.


Hola amigo jjcthorpe: Thanks for the link. Did you notice that even on there it says in the footnote: "Tiempo arcaico" (archaic tense). Definition of archaic:ar·cha·ic ärˈkāik/ adjective 1. very old or old-fashioned. "prisons are run on archaic methods" synonyms: obsolete, out of date, old-fashioned, outmoded, behind the times, bygone, anachronistic, antiquated, superannuated, antediluvian, old world, old-fangled;



no, I didn't notice that - I was looking at the "helping/auxiliary verb" table not the "impersonal verb" table ( didn't notice there were two tables) but thanks.


"be" is not future tense in English. It's present subjunctive in English. Like haya is present subjunctive in Spanish.


So when would "hubiere" be used if not "there will be..." (ie in the previous example)? Thanks.


I put :she wants to have less wine ad was marked wrong. A translation should NOT be rigid


"She wants to have" and "She wants there to be" don't mean the same thing. "She wants there to be less wine" could be talking about the amount of wine in the sauce, or at the party, or in the world, but it probably wouldn't mean the amount of wine that she has.


What about, "She wishes to have less wine"?


couldn't this be she wants that i have less wine?? thanks, betty


This definitely says "LINO" at the speech.


She was never that fun to have at parties :-/


i accidentally wrote hayamenos instead of haya menos, why am i wrong


When I type in haya on Google translate it comes up BEECH. Can someone please explain the difference between hay and haya?


It’s the same word but after the verb ‘Querer’ you should use the subjunctive verb tense. So ‘hay’ will become ‘haya’


Thank you. It's frustrating to me to have a "lesson" in Duolingo with absolutely no instructions on usage.


So haya is subjunctive?


Why would something be wrong because the English was misspelled when I'm using the talk button on my phone and the phone misspells the word isn't that being a little picky


Ella es una agua fiesta.


I used 'wish' as a translation for 'quiere'. She wishes that there is less wine. It is clumsy English I know and it was marked wrong despite meaning the same thing as the offered translation.


Isn't it possible to answer : "She wants less wine to be there" ?


So must drink more then


And I'm lost by the english part! She wants THERE to be less wine! I wrote "she wants that there was less wine" ("was" as subjonctive, because in english it's the same form)


"Were" would be the subjuntive in English. I wish there were less wine. I wish I were king.


Hola y Felices Días de Fiesta, Melita: Yes, you are absolutely correct that "were" is one possible translation in the English subjunctive. I don't think you mean that is the only translation, so.... just for the record, this particular sentence can also be translated "that there would be less wine", "that there will be less wine", "that there may be less wine", "that there be less wine" and maybe some other possibilities. Chau.


Lisa, Isn't English a wonderful language? So much vocabulary from such varied origins, so many ways of saying something, each way with its own nuance. And so hard to learn as a second or third language. I am glad to be learning Spanish and not English. Although, with all the discussion about English, I am learning more about it too :-).


Exactly! Thanks, Melita2.


I think saying, "She wants that there was less wine" is not the subjunctive at all. http://www.englishclub.com/grammar/verbs-subjunctive.htm

You could have probably gotten away with, "She wants that there be less wine", but not "that there was" less wine.


It would actually be, in English, "she wishes that there WERE less wine." DL double-sixed that, though. It IS the English subjunctive--not "was".


Yes, that is the subjunctive, and I prefer that version. But say we are talking about an event that will be held in two weeks and she learns that there will be too much wine. "She wants that there be less wine" is perfectly acceptable even if it's a bit extravagant. If we are talking about an event in the past, "She wishes/wished that there were less wine" would then sound better to my ears though I can also see it being use to talk about the present.


Great!! Thank you "gros monstre"!^^ You've just taught me sth!


From the comments below I guess that DL have exceeded their usual jobsworth. Introduce a new word, introduce a new tense, use a sentence that can be interpreted by Spanish and english alike in ten different ways and then only mark their own opinion as being correct. The perfect way to learn a language!


it makes me confuse


Can someone help me please. "There to be" sounds very odd to me, never seen that construction before. I translated it as:

Ella quiere que-she wants that

Haya-there is

Menos vino-less wine

I found 'she wants that there is less wine' more natular. But was marked wrong.


To me, "She wants that there is less wine" sounds unnatural, and I'm not sure, but I think it's even grammatically incorrect. "She wants that there be less wine" sounds correct to me, but very formal. "She wants there to be less wine" sounds the most natural to me.


Thank you Barbara, I try to look for "there be" or "there to be" and didn't found many English grammar topics on that, I found that 'there to be' is highly unusual impersonal form of 'to be' and from that I found this tables of its conjugation:http://www.shertonenglish.com/resources/es/miscelaneous-topics/there-be.php Here's the thing, whether or not the 'that' is needed in English is not the point, yet it changes the way the sentence is put after, but the meaning is intact. The question is the 'there +' part. My argument against "there to be" is not that is grammatical correct or not, but that it is an infinitive, so the translation must have an 'ar-er-ir' ending. I translated as "there is" because I think the sentence was singular and present. And now that you mentioned the form "there be" sounds natural too, yet I'm still inclined to conjugate to 'is' because the beginning of the sentence is in present, and I may use "there be" if tense was not known.


The translations between Spanish and English are not always word for word, or even tense for tense when the infinitive is involved.

"that there be" is actually using the subjunctive. The present subjunctive for "to be" is "be" for all the persons. The subjunctive is rarely used in English now, especially spoken English. The phrase "there be" is only correct after "that", and "that there be" is only correct after certain verbs. https://www.englishclub.com/grammar/verbs-subjunctive.htm

With "that there be", the "that" is required. With "there to be", the "that" must not be there. There are cases where "that" is optional, but this is not one of them.


So few contexts in which this sentence would be used...She wants there to be less wine.


That's a perfectly natural English sentence to form. You're planning a wedding, and the planner says, "We will have the usual amount of wine at your wedding." The groom-to-be jumps in: No, I talked to my wife. She wants there to be less wine.


Call me strange ... :-) I am a native speaker (Canada) and I have said things like that. It feels a bit colloquial to me though. If I was writing formally, I would write "She wants that there be less wine."


Barbara, if you were writing formally, you would write "If I were writing formally..." :-)


Yes, but I was only writing formally in the quoted sentence. Not in the introduction to the quoted sentence.

Double :-) :-)


that there is should be correct. It may be a bit unusual but it says the exact same thing. Haber makes me crazy

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