"I might have done it."
Translation:Yo lo hubiera hecho.
I might have done it
is kinda like:
I would have done it.
To me, "might" seems closer to "maybe" so I agree with you that it is really confusing
I don't think it is without "quizas" or "tal vez" or something; I think this exercise is wrong, and I reported it as such. See http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/293299/hubierahabria-preferido
ummm interesting point, personally as the sentence is alone and without context, I would suggest the "yo" is needed, but i guess it depends on how you look at it
That would be context dependent. If you were fessing up to a direct question like "Did you do it?", then you would not need the "yo".
I agree. It seems the last few lessons I've done have a lot of these kinds of "errors" in them.
This isn't usually the case so maybe they need to do some fine tuning on some recently added material.
I think so too, provided that there is context, when it comes to subjunctive, conditional and past subjunctive, the yo form is the same as the él/ella/usted form too so sometimes things can get a little unclear if you constantly omit them.
How come you use the imperfect subjunctive and not the present subjunctive?
The English sentence is referring to the past. I might have done it = maybe I did it.
But if you just say "I have done it", it would be "lo he hecho" which is the present perfect ??
It's so hard remembering to put 'it' at the beginning of a Spanish sentence when English put 'it' at the end.