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  5. "Señorita, hable más alto, po…

"Señorita, hable más alto, por favor."

Translation:Miss, speak louder, please.

May 2, 2018



Why is it "alto" rather than "alta". Would it make any difference it the sentence were addressed to a man, or does it just modify "speak"?


Probablemente porque el volumen es más alto. Más alta would be used to describe the young lady as being taller.


I see it modifies speak (volumen), not the lady. Thanks!


I answered "habla más alto" to a "write what you hear" form of this question. Duo said I incorrectly used the the command form "habla" instead of the 3rd person you form "hable". The conjugations I have of hablar show the formal 3rd person present of hablar as "habla," not "hable." Can anyone explain why Duo says it's hable here?


Habla is the present tense form for él, ella, usted. It is used to tell what happens or is happening. Señorita, (usted) habla español muy bien. Miss, you speak Spanish very well.

Hable is the imperative for usted. It is used to give a formal command. Señorita, hable (usted) más alto, por favor. Miss, speak louder, please.

Habla is also the imperative for tú. It is used to give a familiar command. Carmen, habla (tú) más alto, por favor. Carmen, speak louder, please.


Marcy - I hope DL are paying you for all the teaching you do. Your responses are always helpful.


But isn't the example ambiguous? Could be Miss (usted) or Miss (tú), hable in the first, habla in the second?


marcy65brown gives a good explanation of the grammatical aspect of this exercise, but I am inclined to agree with you that ambiguity does exist around whether "tu" or "usted" is appropriate. "Miss" doesn't imply familiarity. Nor does it imply formality.


Good answer, and fascinating ... but I came across this in a practice session, and I don't remember ever seeing it on DL before, so that's kind of frustrating. Oh well. Thanks for the explanation, it's very helpful.


"Speak louder" is not really exactly correct since it is a comparison and we do not know to what. "Speak more loudly" is better.


When someone says speak louder it is saying speak louder than what you are currently. So that's the correct translation. 'More loud' is just not something which is said.


An adjective is used to modify a noun, pronoun, or another adjective. An adverb is used to modify verbs or other adverbs. "Speak" is a verb, so "Speak more loudly" is grammatically correct. "More loudly than you currently are," is understood. "Speak louder" may be heard, but it is really not correct since the adjective "loud" should not be used to modify a verb.


Actually, adverbs modify verbs, adjectives or other adverbs. Adjectives do not modify other adjectives. :)

Comparative adjectives like "Louder" can, and do function as adverbs. [He speaks louder than his opponent] [Speak louder!]

More Loudly is likewise correct but is usually heard less often. [He speaks more loudly than his opponent.] (particularly in command form) [Speak more loudly!]


"Speak more loudly" is definitely correct, since the comparative form of the adverb 'loudly' is 'more loudly' or, apparently (I checked a couple of dictionaries), 'louldlier'. If all these options sound weird to you (and they do to me), that is because they are rare, especially 'loudlier' (even my spellchecker is not happy with that word). The word 'loud' is an adjective AND an adverb, and its comparative form (for both parts of speech) is 'louder'. So it is absolutely correct (and natural for many, including myself) to say "Speak louder."


Duo uses "fuerte" for loud in other sentences. Spanishdict lists "mas fuerte" and "mas alto" as possibilities. Anyone know if one is more common than the other?


I work with 1/2 graders that are mostly from Mexico. They never say mas fuerte. I'm not saying it isn't correct, but it definitely doesn't seem common.


I thought you'd use mas fuerte instead of mas alto


Why is it 'alto' rather than ' alta', ti match the female?


In this sentence, alto is an adverb modifying the verb hablar
Adverbs don't change to match the verb for gender or plurality.

  • 2636

Because it is not describing the woman. It is describing how she is speaking. Therefore it is an adverb, and adverbs are invariable.


When do we say hable and when do we say habla

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