ich mag euren schmuck
In this sentence, I understand it to be 2nd person plural, which is why euren is used instead of ihr or dein. However can someone tell me if a sentence can have both a first person and a second person.
is the ich (first person) and then euren, 2nd person within the same sentence?
Those terms aren't applied to an entire sentence, rather to different things in the sentence.
For example, take the sentence for "I give a book to my mother":
Ich gebe meiner Mutter ein Buch.
- ich -> nominative (subject)
- meiner Mutter -> dative (indirect object, to whom I am giving)
- ein Buch -> accusative (direct object, what I am giving)
Ok so then yes a single sentence can be compromised of more than 1 case type. My next question, in your example:
"I give a book to my mother" > is the sentence considered or generally classified as accusative? dative, or Nominative?
That is does the first part define the case type for the entire sentence unless you break it down further?
the reason why I am asking that specifically is because I am currently working on only accusative case types like this: ich mag euren schmuck. and am unclear on the combination of case types
A sentence itself is not classified as being in a specific case. The cases apply to different parts of a sentence. In general, the subject is in the nominative, the direct object is accusative, and the indirect object is dative. There are other things, such as prepositions or certain verbs, that can determine the case of a noun and its modifiers.
For your example of "ich mag euren Schmuck.":
- ich -> nominative (subject)
- euren Schmuck -> accusative (direct object, what you like)
I think that perhaps you're getting confused with tenses, such as past and present. Cases are not like that.
Here's some additional reading about cases: https://www.lsa.umich.edu/german/hmr/Grammatik/Case_Overviews/Standard_Case_Overview.html
Both sentences are the same really. The sentence "Ich gebe meiner Mutter ein Buch." can be translated as either "I give my mother a book." or "I give a book to my mother." They mean the same thing.
The reason why is because in the sentence "I give my mother a book.", the "to my mother" is still there in an implied form. An indirect object answers the question "to or for what or whom?" So saying "it would have to be" one form of the sentence and not the other is misleading.
Check out the following link for an explanation: http://www.dailygrammar.com/Lesson-191-Indirect-Objects.htm
Also, in some English speaking regions or social-class circles, using the form without the expressed preposition is looked down upon.
I remember in my English classes in school in the 1980s, the English teachers and parents would have witty things to say if you said something like "Please make me a sandwich." The response would be them pretending to wave a magic wand and saying "Poof, you're now a sandwich.", as if you were turned from a human into a sandwich. They would then tell us to instead say "Please make a sandwich for me."