¿'Yo tengo un pasaporte' o 'Yo tengo pasaporte'?
En castellano si se refiere a que la persona tiene un pasaporte en regla, se diría sin el artículo indeterminado, es decir, Yo tengo pasaporte. Creo que la traducción de esta frase en inglés sería I have a passport. Si es así, sería más correcto la frase en castellano como Yo tengo pasaporte.
Yo tengo un pasaporte significa que tengo un pasaporte pero que no es el mío. Creo que es importante clarificar esto para que los anglohablantes lo tengan claro.
Yo tengo un pasaporte means that I have a passport, but not mine, if I mean that I have a valid passport, it should be: Yo tengo pasaporte.
In the normal-speed version, it's either not there, or said so rapidly that it's inaudible. It's in the slow version, but I didn't listen to that before answering because I'm trying to get accustomed to the typical rapid-fire delivery of the language. And because "Yo tengo pasaporte" is a perfectly valid construction (see the first comment here), I didn't see anything wrong with it.
Tener in Spanish is to English, the base form of "to have." In my observation, where you get specific with who is being referred to by the verb, usually it is simply done by adding "o" (I), "s" (you), "a" (he/she). For example, "comer" (to eat) is the base form of verbs "como" (I eat), comes (you eat), "come" (he/she eats). But this the usual way of doing it and I can see why this is confusing as it relates to the verb in question. I think it's one of those things where you just need to memorise because the general rule is not applicable?? I like to compare it to regular and irregular verbs in English where unfortunately, adding "d" or "ed" (ex: live- lived) after the verb changes a verb into its past tense form only applies to regular verbs, though this is the usual case. Because there are irregular verbs(buy- bought), one who is just learning English as a second language will need to familiarise with and memorise verbs. Haha I am not sure if I am making any sense here or adding to your confusion with my examples. Hopefully I helped in some way though.
usually, when a noun finish with an "A" it's femenine, and if it finish with an "O" it's masculine, but sometimes it doesn't change for example: mago (wizard) it's masculine and femenine and you have to put "un mago" in masculine, and "una mago" if the wizard is a woman. i don't know if i said it right, i don't speak english haha
the nouns and adjectives (with exceptions) have gender: masculine and femenine, but there's no reason for it, a boat is masculine and tavle is femenine. Femenine words go with femenine articles, and masculine too. una/la femenine, un/el masculine. La and El can be plural or singular as well, las f plural and los m plural
As far as I know, there is no rule that says Spanish nouns ending in "e" should be feminine. Think, for example, of "hombre", "padre", "elefante", "restaurante", "instante" etc that are masculine.
In fact, I think it is rather the case that most Spanish nouns ending in "e" are masculine:
LONERS - words that end with any of the letters in LONERS are usually masculine. Study.com