'Since he has become'... isnt devient the more direct translation to becoming something? Why MUST I use 'est'.
Why "il est" for "he has become?" Is there no differentiation between "he is (and always has been) tall" and "he has become tall (but wasn't always tall)"?
why can't I say:
depuis que il est grand... (without the contraction)?
It is still grammatically correct no??
I believe the contractions are required in French. They are not optional, as they are in English.
The contraction is necessary because "il" starts with a vowel.