If you say "la femme mange du riz" it means "the women is eating the rice" / "the women is eating that rice" ==> Its a specific rice (your rice, the rice that was in the kitchen,...) If you say "la femme mange du riz" , you are talking about an "unknown" rice. You can translate it into "the woman is eating rice". I hope this makes it clearer for you
"La femme mange __ riz." According to Duolingo, it should be "du riz", but can someone please explain why "le riz" is wrong?
Think about it the women is eating the(le riz) rice vs the women is eating some(du riz) rice. See in english if you say the women is eating the rice it would sound kinda wierd.
So in French when you say,"the rice", it is kind of like saying the single rice grain. It is grammatically correct to say,"Some rice", or du riz.
No one thinks riz sounds similar to lait? I can never distinguish them from the listening except the context tells me is "mange" so it should pair with "riz".....
I can never understand the pronunciation different between La femme and Las femmes, or L'homme and les hommes. they sound exactly the same when pronounced, its just a guess...
Actually for les hommes since the 'h' is silent the 's' in les would be pronounced as a 'z' to kind of bring it together because the french like smooth sentences. (Lezome would be the pronounciation)
In case of single : the pronunciation is (laa famm)
In case of plural : the pronunciation is (lee famm)
Hope that helps
I thought "du riz" means some rice, but it says rice. This is confusing when you "du pain" which means some bread. What's the difference between "du riz" and "du pain"?
"Du riz" can mean some rice, just as "du pain" means some bread. Theres a grammatical difference of french versus english in this case where the sentence translates to either "The woman eats some rice" or "the woman eats rice". In french, you simply are required to have "de" or contractions thereof in sentences like this.
Since it's not apparent, why is 'du' used for some rice and 'de' used in other cases; gender of the noun?
Yes. Like "de + les= des" would be used for plural or "de la" for singular feminine. De + le = du.
I picked "le riz" in the pull down menu. "la femme mange le riz" How would you say "the woman is eating the rice?
what is the difference between du and de? I wrote de riz and they wrote it's du riz. then I wrote du something else and they wrote it's de
i write " the women eat some rice " whay we use hir eats not eat .. What is the different
Because "la femme" is singular, it's translated as "the womAn". Hence, the verb used is "eats" (and not "eat").
Why is 'La femme mange de la riz' incorrect? I know the correct translation is 'La femme mange du riz' but why not 'de la'?
Why is eating "mange" and not "manges". I ask because I thought mange was only when talking about yourself and "manges" is when talking about others?
Verbs that end (infinitive form) with -er (like manger = to eat) are always conjugated the same way : The radical (here mang-) then terminations : (-e, -es, -e, -ons, -ez, -ent). So in this case Je Mange / Tu manges / Il mange / Nous mangEons (you need to add a E) / Vous mangez / Ils mangent.
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