"Mom always cooks good food."
Translation:Mamá siempre cocina buena comida.
I think looking at it that way could lead to confusion. Buena cannot describe the cooking itself. It is an adjective (conjugated to match the feminine noun, comida). Sometimes adjectives can go before the nouns they modify. Remember that the adjective, bueno, when placed in front of a singular, masculine noun becomes "buen"? I admit, I'm still trying to understand the rules as to why/when the adjective can go in front of the noun, or if it has to in some instances.
While 'bien' does mean well, I just want to add the further note that 'well' (bien) is an adverb and so is used to modify a verb ... 'Ella cocinas bien.' (cooks well) and Good (buen, bueno, buena) is an adjective and so is used to modify a noun. 'Ella cocina comida buena' (good food).
Bien is the adverb so it changes the verb Ex: ella cocina bien ¡Usted habla el español muy bien!
Bueno/a is the adjective that would modify a noun like in this sentence. Buen is the same word, but the masculine form when it modifies the noun.
Masculino Ex: ¡haces un buen trabajo! Es un buen libro.
Femina Ex: la comida está super buena! Es una buena mujer
Me too. After reading this link :
4. Meaning-change Adjectives
Some adjectives can mean different things depending on their placement.
When placed after the noun, the adjective has a fairly objective, descriptive meaning.
When placed before the noun, the adjective has a more subjective meaning.
An example they gave for bueno says:
Adjective = bueno
Before the noun = simple/good
After the noun = good/gentle/generous
Whether or not mom always cooks good food would be a subjective matter of taste. So, I'll accept I'm wrong.
Can someone clarify this?
That seems to be opposite the rule I learned about Spanish definite articles. This page suggests otherwise:
"With generic nouns: These are nouns that refer to a concept or to a substance in general or a member of a class in general, rather than a specific one (where the article would be required in both languages). No preferiría el despotismo. (I wouldn't prefer despotism.) El trigo es nutritivo. (Wheat is nutritious.) Los americanos son ricos. (Americans are rich.)"
I must be confused. It seems, to me, that you are both saying the same thing:
In both languages, an article is required for specific things. But "general" nouns do not require the article. Did I get that right? (I think the exception may be subjects of sentences).
However, I've read the opposite too. Or I just misunderstood. This continues to confuse me, so I've been hoping I'll eventually get the feel for it, even if I don't understand why.