Doesn’t “bende” mean “I also” or “I too” ? Why is it wrong in this sentence?
There are two ways of writing it: bende and ben de. Two different meanings too. "Bende" is the way it was introduced in this sentence. I just wanted to know what exactly is wrong with the way I translated it. Anyway....
If you want to translate this sentence as "I also have two, I want four." than its turkish translation will be
"Bende de iki tane var, ben dört tane istiyorum."
Bende - I have
de - also
the Turkish dictionary/helper app is telling me "iki tane de var," but my notes say explicitly that "var" should be next to whatever is existing. Native Turkish speaker, please?
If you can write the full sentence it'd be more easy to answer.
I'd rather say "you should use var just next to the phrase that you want to emphasize its existence"
So; iki tane var (there are two pieces)
iki tane de var (there are also two pieces [if you don't want it in three pieces])
"Bende" = on me / with me ; "Ben de" = I also. The spelling matters.
You cannot translate "bende" as "I also".
It shows that you own them. In English you can express something you have with saying that you own it. In Turkish we express it through saying that it exists by us. So var has the meaning of to have; but its actual meaning in English is to exist.
The literal translation of this sentence is; "It exists as two with me, I want four (of them)
So, var is the main verb of this sentence.
Isn't the usual construction for "I have X" with possessive + "var"? Quasi "my X exists". And the locative construct iindicates definite objects, so "I have the two (pieces)" should be OK here?
Just curious, would this also be correct: "Bende iki tane, ben dört tane istiyorum?" Is var necessary?
No. You're saying "on me, two...."
Two of them are what? Present or Absent? You need to finish the sentence with var or yok.
You can however say: İki tanesi bende. (Two of them are on me, or with me.) That is perceived as a full sentence.