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  5. "Afternoons on the beach are …

"Afternoons on the beach are fun."

Translation:Las tardes en la playa son divertidas.

May 29, 2018



So tardes is feminine? I have a hard time remembering this - any helpful tips to remember this?


Sure, “la mañana” is feminine and the rest of the sections of the day are too: la tarde” and “la noche.”

Yes to those below, that is right "the day" itself is "el día" , an exception since it is masculine though it ends in a.


But still one has: BuenOs dias...which is masculin. So I remembered it like this: BuenAs tardes..thus...las tardes (feminine)


Thanks. I now have a reliable crutch.


But not 'dias' as in "buenos dias'


Just my take, but you always say "buenas tardes", which tells you 'tardes' is feminine

  • 1477

Por que no "Las tardes en la playa están divertidas"


Divertido/a(s) is generally considered to be a characteristic/property of something, rather than a state something is in, so ser is generally the verb you see paired with it (using the son conjugation in this case).

Están would only potentially make sense in this context if some specific days on the beach were being referred to as part of a state, in other words having emphasis on being fun "in the moment". In that case you probably wouldn't use Las though, more likely it would be something like "Estas tardes en la playa están divertidas." I think son is still more likely even in this context though.

A better example for where an adjective is sometimes used with both verbs is food. You'd use ser to say that a (type of) food is good/delicious/whatever in general, but estar to put the emphasis on the specific preparation (state) of a food that you're currently eating.

So try and remember estar = state, and that ser is used for things regarded as characteristics which can include those that are subjective or non-permanent. Hopefully it will help decide these sorts of cases until you eventually build an intuition through exposure/practice.


This is a great and thorough explanation, thanks! What you say makes sense... However...I still feel "son" is not logical to one's opinion of an afternoon on the beach. I get that here "son" indicates an inherent overall opinion of a beach afternoon, but that opinion may not be permanent. Let's say, for example, something bad happens to me on the beach which forever soils my overall opinion of an afternoon on the beach. The inherent opinion/state changes. I am a beginner Spanish learner, so I admit to understanding the nuances of the lamguage far from fully, but still...To me, not being able to use both 'estan' and 'son' here seens...inflexible.


It is not so great an explanation as you are still confused. You would not use están here.

How you are and where you are use a form of estar. Use estar also with other verb participles to form certain tenses. Permanent vs. temporary is a bad way to look at most uses of these verbs. There are a few adjectives which have different meanings based on which verb is used. This is not just one afternoon. This is a generalization. Spanish is inflexible about this. You have to use one or the other and there are rules when to use each, An opinion might use a completely different tense in the subjunctive mood, but we will learn that later.

You may not agree with this generalization, but that does not change its form. You would have to add extra words into the sentence to use "están". There is no emotion or bad experence mentioned in this sentence. This is not about you or I and how we feel about afternoons. This is a general statement that you may disagree with. It may be that someone had said that "Mornings at the beach are foggy and cold." So now we are talking about afternoons being a better time to go there. Temporal things use "ser". "Fun" is not a state or condition, but rather it is a characteristic. You could be happy, because you are having fun. Your happiness is an emotional state or condition that would use a form of estar.





I just edited the post you replied to since I think one or two parts may have been misleading.

Whether it's an opinion or whether that opinion could change is irrelevant, that's looking at it from the wrong direction. What's relevant is...

  1. If it makes sense to say that afternoons on the beach in general are "in a fun state" (basically no)

  2. If it did make sense, whether that's the meaning being expressed (definitely not)

  3. Whether, even if those criteria were met, Spanish prefers to regard divertidas grammatically as a characteristic, and therefore prefers son regardless (it strongly does)


My thoughts exactly.


I agree that estar should be used rather than ser. Or is fun at the beach permanent? People here die at the beach from lightning, drowning, etc. Not fun!


The key word telling that it's permanent is "Afternoons"


ser verb is used to describe permanent attributes of sth, and he is speaking about many evenings and they're all fun so it's not just once, hence the verb son is used not estan.


Why Las if the is not used


When a sentence begins with a noun that is a generality, it needs an article (el, la, los, las) before it. In English, we say "Afternoons at the beach are fun." but in Spanish, because afternoons is a noun, it's, "Las tardes en la playa son divertidas."

The exception is when you are addressing someone directly. For instance, "Mr Sanchez is nice." would be "El Senor Sanchez es simpatico." When addressing Mr. Sanchez directly, you do not need the article. So, "Mr. Sanchez, you are nice." would be "Senor Sanchez, usted es simpatico."


I certainly can't remember the sentence from a previous lesson where the article wasn't used at the beginning. I always use the article but this time I didn't because of remembering that one sentence...and of course, they marked it wrong. Grrrrrr!


The definite article is used for a generality in Spanish, if no definite article was used then it was not a generality, but I cannot even think of a sentence which did not have any article at all to begin. Are you sure it didn't start with an indefinite article?


Why not "Tardes en la playa son divertidas." ?


Spanish requires “las tardes” for the generality.




LOL. Me too Nancy :)


Why is it "son" and not "estan"?


Why "en la playa" and not "a la playa" ?!


“A la playa” would be “to the beach” used with verbs such as “ to go”


When to use 'divertidos' and 'divertidas'? Please reply soon


All nouns are either masculine or feminine and many words end in o for masculine or a for feminine. Adjectives must match the gender as well as the number of the noun. “Tardes” is feminine and plural, so it takes “divertidas.” When you don’t remember the gender of a noun, you can look it up in a dictionary. This one has sf in red which stands for sustantivo feminino or feminine noun. https://dictionary.reverso.net/spanish-english/Tardes


Compare: previous exercise - "Los fines de semana en la playa son muy divertidos" vs "Las tardes en la playa son muy divertidas" - it's not "la playa" that determines which form to use - divertidos or divertidas - but rather "Los fines de semana..." which is masculine or "Las tardes.." which is feminine. Glad I wrote this out...I was so confused myself until I did LOL.


How do you know if it's divertidas or divertida?


Afternoons is plural, so fun also needs to be plural.


In Spanish, not in English though.


I wrote "las tardes son divertidas en la playa". Although i notice my mistake on the question, it's the same thing, right? Or does it sound weird? Help will be much appreciated!


Right! It's exactly the same.


why do i have to put "las" before tardes? i know it's feminine, but in english sentence doesn't have a "the"


In Spanish the definite article is required for a generality though we use the indefinite form in English for a generality.


Just forgot the n on en. Brrrrrgrrrr


Ok I got it wrong.I put los instead of las ,but I don't need to see a tip every time I *;"":";":::" know already.


Why son divertidas and not están divertidas


How is tardes afternoon AND evening. Pick one.


Well, technically evening does also come after 12 noon. "tardes" is just a longer time frame which goes until "noches" or night.


Whats the point in putting an s on divertida?


In Spanish adjectives must match the gender (masculine or feminine) and number (singular or plural) of the noun that is being described. “Tardes” is feminine and plural, so it must be “divertidas.”


Why does it need to be plural and not singular for divertidas?


Scroll up, just explained above you.


Sometimes the algorithm lets me slide on divertidos/divertidas other times it is a firm "you failed"!! Aye no?!?!(


I am doing the sentence right why won't accept my answer


it does not say "The afternoons" it says Afternoons.. why would it need to be "Las Tardes" and not accept "Tardes"


In English we use the indefinite form for generalizations, but in Spanish they use the definite form for generalizations so they require the definite article at the beginning of this sentence.


I dont understand that why are we using Ser here.


I have it correct!!! All the spelling matches!!


That's good. We cannot see your answer here and we don't know which instructions you were given.


Why cant i write jst tardes en la playa son divertidas?


Not Spanish, in English we say "Afternoons" for a generalization, but in Spanish a generalization requires a definite article.


Hey, can someone please explain why its son and not estan? And also please explain the difference between the two? Thanks!


Afternoons on the beach are always fun, not just sometimes. No really, when to use each is more complicated than permanent vs, temporary. https://baselang.com/blog/basic-grammar/ser-vs-estar-the-only-guide-youll-ever-need/

Some adjectives change meaning depending on which verb you use: https://www.thoughtco.com/use-of-ser-or-estar-changes-meaning-3079083


Hey, can someone please explain why its son and not estan? Amd olease also explain the difference between the two? Thanks!


Please scroll up, just read the info. at the links.


Why we used son here?


It is the 3rd person plural form required by "las tardes."

If you mean, why "son" instead of "están then it is because divertidas is a characteristic of "las tardes en la playa". Apparently, afternoons at the beach are always fun.



Why is the adjective 'fun' in the plural - divertidas, not divertida?


In English the adjective has one form, but in Spanish the adjective must match the gender (masculine or feminine) and the number (singular or plural) of the noun being described in this sentence "divertidas" describes "las tardes".


Why is "las" required? Any rule on that? I answered "Tardes en la playa son divertitas" and it was marked incorrect.


Generalizations in Spanish use the definite article unlike in English.

Also, it is "divertidas".


Thank you, I understand that now. Actually, when I pressed "Tip", DuoLingo said the same thing......but better to learn it here from another user.


How in gods name is tardes feminine??????

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