If you mean, is it a difference between Spanish and English in usage, then yes, it is. In English, to express the past in the negative we drop "came" and use "come" as in "did not come". The verb "to do" expresses the past, so the verb "to come" doesn't need to do that. The same thing happens of course in the interrogative form, e.g. "Did he come?" The same does not happen in Spanish. They do not have the equivalent of using "did" in the preterite as an auxiliary verb. It is just "no vine, no viniste, no vino", etc.