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  5. "I love to eat fruits."

"I love to eat fruits."

Translation:Me encanta comer frutas.

June 4, 2018



Why not "me encanta comer las frutas"? Why don't you need the article here?


I have the same question.


I do too... if I have to like or love 'los vaqueros' intead of just 'vaqueros' , why don't I have to love 'las frutas'?


I made the same mistake, but I think comer (to eat) is the subject of the sentence. Thus "To eat fruits is enchanting to me" is the literal albeit clumsy translation. So there is no need for "las". This also answers the question as to why "encanta" is singular since "to eat" is singular.


Yup good answer. Tienes un Lingot.


Why isn't this me encantan? Frutas is plural.


The thing which "enchants" you is comer the frutas, not the frutas as such.


Like the first two questions, why not las frutas?


I agree about the "las." I finally got into my head that when you like or love something, you must include the article, which is "the" here.


Is it a grammer rule in Spanish?


Except it'seating fruit that you like, not just fruit in general.


Is 'amo comer frutas' wrong? I'm not sure if amar should only be used for loving romantically.


Same question - amar is only for "romantic love"?


the english sentence clearly says 'fruits' in plural and therefore the translation should be 'me encantan comer las frutas' - unless someone can explain to me why I am wrong and DUO is correct


The reason why you don't say "encantan" in this case is, as SaraGalesa pointed out in another reply, because the encanta refers to the act of eating--comer--and not the fruits. Therefore, even though fruits is plural, encanta stays singular because verbs are always considered singular.

As for why you can't add "las" before the "frutas", you got me stumped. Let's report it?

Feel free to correct me if I'm wrong, but in the meantime, I hope you understand a little bit better!


Rules/guidelines when we have to put "a" between a verb tense>> "encanta"; and its basic "to something>> i.e. > to eat" and when we don't. Do only certain verbs require an "a" before a "to something" verb or is it depend on situation (like the verb "tener" when you "have to do" something.) ??


I said ENCANTO COMER FRUTAS. Why isn't that correct?


The sentence is really more like "Eating fruits is enchanting to me". So, "eating" is the subject. With a verb as the subject of "encantar", you get singular agreement (third person of course): "encanta".

"Encantar", like "gustar"and "interesar", demands an explicit indirect object pronoun: "Me encanta comer frutas", "Te encanta comer frutas", etc.


Then why is it not me gusta comer frutas


Gustar is to like, encantar is to love.


I made encantan plural because the direct object is plural. Isn't encantar like gustar and has to agree with the direct object?


This is a link to the best article I have found on the topic, BUT it still doesn't answer the question for why I was marked wrong for using the definite article in this case but not on others. It does clear up some questions though.


I love to eat fruits. Me encanta comer frutas. I love fruits. Me encantan las frutas. You don't need las in the first sentence, because the subject, comer is a verb. In the second, use las for fruits, a noun.

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