"I love to eat fruits."
Translation:Me encanta comer frutas.
I made the same mistake, but I think comer (to eat) is the subject of the sentence. Thus "To eat fruits is enchanting to me" is the literal albeit clumsy translation. So there is no need for "las". This also answers the question as to why "encanta" is singular since "to eat" is singular.
Let's use "me gusta comer frutas" as a example. A similar construction in English would be "Eating fruits pleases me." Here it's easy to see that what we're discussing is "eating" not "fruits". No article is needed. To contrast, if you wanted to say that "apples please you", you'd say "me gusta las manzanas". Verbs "encantar" and "interesar" work the same way. I love chicken = me encanta el pollo (chicken is the subject) I love eating chicken = me encanta comer pollo (eating is the subject)
No. In this sentence, what I love isn't "fruits." What I love is "to eat (fruits)." For verbs like gustar, you use the third person singular form before another verb. So:
I love to eat fruits. Me encanta comer frutas.
They love to eat fruits. Les encanta comer frutas.
I love fruits. Me encantan frutas.
They love fruits. Les encantan frutas.
Got this of the Quora as it is explained in the better way hence copy-pasting:
“Amar” is the most formal way of “love”. You only use it with humans, very close humans you’re romantically involved with such as your significant other. You can use it too for things you feel truly passionate about such as, let’s say, singing if you were an opera singer. “Amar” implies true passion towards the thing you love.
“Encantar” is a slightly stronger form of “like”. It’s seldom used on humans and in those cases it can be interpreted as a very soft form of “like”. If you were flirting with someone and you were shy and wanted to test the waters before a more formal declaration, you could say “me encantas”. It’s perfectly normal to use “encantar” with objects and hobbies, for example: Me encanta el helado de chocolate - I love chocolate ice-cream.
Rules/guidelines when we have to put "a" between a verb tense> "encanta"; and its basic "to something> i.e. > to eat" and when we don't. Do only certain verbs require an "a" before a "to something" verb or is it depend on situation (like the verb "tener" when you "have to do" something.) ??
The reason why you don't say "encantan" in this case is, as SaraGalesa pointed out in another reply, because the encanta refers to the act of eating--comer--and not the fruits. Therefore, even though fruits is plural, encanta stays singular because verbs are always considered singular.
As for why you can't add "las" before the "frutas", you got me stumped. Let's report it?
Feel free to correct me if I'm wrong, but in the meantime, I hope you understand a little bit better!
The sentence is really more like "Eating fruits is enchanting to me". So, "eating" is the subject. With a verb as the subject of "encantar", you get singular agreement (third person of course): "encanta".
"Encantar", like "gustar"and "interesar", demands an explicit indirect object pronoun: "Me encanta comer frutas", "Te encanta comer frutas", etc.