I have a major problem with DL's preference for "Did you..?." over "Have you...?" in english translations of spanish phases.
encontraste ≈ you found
Did you find your glasses/lenses?" appears to ask in the present tense about a completed task performed by you in the past, while "Have you found your glasses/lenses?" appears to ask in the present tense about what maybe an UNcompleted task performed by you in the past. So maybe "did" works best (in english) in the spanish preterite tense but "have" works best (in english) in the spanish imperfect tense?
I am probably allowing myself to become too bogged down in this dichotomy but every time DL uses "Did you " i feel something is amiss.
- encontraste - you found
- has encontrado - you have found
- encontrabas - you were finding, you used to find
These three expressions cover different aspects (internal timeframes of the action). The preterite tense condenses the action into a single point in the past - the action begins and ends and now it's over. The present perfect does roughly the same, but the result of the action is still around in the present: because I have found my glasses, I can properly watch TV now.
The imperfect stretches the action out - at the time we're referencing, we were in the middle of the action. It doesn't make a lot of sense with finding some glasses, but if you consider
- leíste - you read
- leías - you read, you were reading, you used to read
you can see the difference better. With the preterite we're talking about the action of reading as a moment where nothing else happened, and with the imperfect it's an event stretched out over a period of time. "Mientras leías, yo volví a casa" - "While you were reading (we're in the middle of the action), I returned home."
Sometimes but not always. "Did you" is usually said shortly after the incident. Did you find your glasses? But have you is usually said when it was forgotten or the time has passed. Have you found your glasses or have you ever found your glasses? Not always, but a lot of times.