"She has many jackets and she wears them all."
Translation:Ella tiene muchas chaquetas y las usa todas.
They marked my answer "Ella tiene muchas chaquetas y ella las usa todas" wrong.
Ella may be needed at the beginning of the sentence for clarity but it is obvious that “she” wears the jackets and is therefore not required in the second part.
The second "she" is not required in English either: "She has many jackets and wears them all" is correct, and the second "she" is just for emphasis, so is it wrong in the Spanish translation?
That's what I thought too. You don't need "she" in the latter part of the sentence in either language, but if DL puts it there in English then it should be correct to put it there in Spanish.
Why is the word order important here? I had "y usa las todas". I don't mind being wrong, but I'd like to know why.
The object(s) used by the person must come before the verb unless the verb is used in its full form.
Lo tengo = I have it
Los quiere = he/she wants them or you (formal) want them
Debo tenerlo = I must have it (tener it its full form because debo already assigns who the verb belongs to)
Ella puede usarlos = She can use them / She can wear them
Hope that helps.
Why is "todas las usa" not accepted, I understand in Spanish word order is kind of optional?
It actually depends on the country, but Duolingo does not recognise them all. That's why something you could've said right, Duolingo will mark it as if it was wrong.