"My mother feels a little tired today."
Translation:Mi madre se siente un poco cansada hoy.
More specifically, myself is a reflexive pronoun in the first sentence and an emphatic pronoun in the second sentence.
I've never heard of emphatic pronouns before today. It's fairly simple. Here's a link with more: https://www.toppr.com/content/concept/reflexive-and-emphatic-pronouns-205301/
Its not just you, Native English speakers weather American,Britsh, Austrailian, South African etc. all find some parts difficult. Its not only idiomatic and colloquial phrases either. Some examples are things that in English that require context that duo doesn't provide - one conspicuous one is the use of "You", duo needs to add an additional sentence to provide enough context to understand if its singular, plural, formal or familiar
Weather should be wether. In English, 'one' is the formal, while 'you' is informal to address another person or a group of people. I'm from the southern United States of America, where you all is contracted to y'all as a friendly form of endearment. Y'all in Texas have a gross misunderstanding of many terms of endearment. Much like, 'bless your heart' is often to have two different meanings, depending on one's understanding. #logophile
I think you mean "whether". A wether is a neutered ram.
Learning a language, you'll have to study into some things a bit more if you really want to get them down. It took me some time and practice to get used to reflexive, but don't give up! I Google a lot of stuff and double check to be sure. Sometimes I check with Spanish-speaking friends/coworkers too.
Here's a basic rundown of how to use and conjugate sentir(se)
|Yo||Me siento aburrido.||I feel bored|
|Tú||Te sientes nervioso.||You feel nervious|
|Él, Ella, Usted||Se siente bien.||He/She/Usted feels good|
|Nosotros, Nosotras||Nos sentimos contentos.||We feel happy|
|Ellos, Ellas, Ustedes||Se sienten tristes.||They feel sad|
Because it's a reflexive construction: "She feels herself a little tired today." Cruzah missed the reflexive pronoun in their example sentence. It should have read:
sentirse is a reflexive verb and means "to feel" as in a mood or emotion
me siento cansado - I feel tired
sentir means "to feel" in the physical sense
yo siento la pelota - I feel the ball
Quoting the answer from the last time this question was asked:
No, "se" is a reflexive pronoun, not a subject pronoun. It's literally (adjusting for word order) "My mother feels herself a little tired today." The reflexive "sentirse" is required when discussing internal experience.
I wonder if there is a way to manage conversations like this, or refer to previous answers. This one in particular could use some of that sort of help! There many questions and answers to "why is it "un poco" not "un poca"? [ un poco is an adverb and doesn't have gender agrement] "Why is the reflexive pronoun se required?" [the verb is "sentirse" not "sentir" the latter "to feel (tactically)" the former "to feel (emotionally)" and a reflexive verb requiring a reflexive pronoun]
Yes, NPs can be and are used as AdvPs all the time. And adverbs are invariant, whether they modify verbs or adjectives, whether they're actual adverbs or NPs used adverbially.
"Poco" can also be used in AdjPs and it is adjectives that have number and gender agreement with nouns. The hints are just hints, not answers. It's like looking up the dictionary entry. You still need to know which one is appropriate to the situation.
Thanks Rae! I love it when grammar looks like chemistry! And as a note to S. Walker and those of you who are like-minded about the rollover hints, they really often do try to spoil us by putting what (in Duo's programmed opinion) is the most likely answer on top. But you really do have to know what you're doing. That's why I take notes and from those notes make flashcards, when I am being ambitious. On the flashcards I sometimes put single words, but often put "chunks" of language.
"Sentirse" is not a verb like "gustar". "Mi madre" is the subject. Subjects can never be the object of a preposition.
With verbs like "gustar", "A mi madre le gustan los perros" translates into English as "My mother likes dogs", but in Spanish is literally "Dogs are pleasing to my mother".
And when it's the personal "a", it's a person or pet who is the direct object of a transitive verb:
I see my mother. Veo a mi madre.
I see my school. Veo mi escuela.
Usually when I think I had the right answer and DL "corrects" me by giving me an alternate word, I find out that I actually made a small error in a different part of the sentence. I guess the odd word they used in their correction was just them trying to make a correct sentence out of the mistake I made. Or, it is an error on their part, in which case you should report it with the "Report" link at the bottom of the page.
It's a pronomial verb; the infinitive is "sentirse". See https://www.spanishdict.com/answers/106797/pronominal-verbsreflexive-pronouns and https://www.realfastspanish.com/vocabulary/spanish-reflexive-verbs and other discussions on the web. "sentir" is "to feel" as in "I felt bumps on the rock"; "sentirse" is "to feel" as in "I feel sad". A bunch of verbs have two forms like this.
Because "poco" is not an adjective. It is a noun. "Un poco" = "a little bit".
Also, adjective placement is not as simple as "it comes after the noun".
Because here, "poco" is an adverb and adverbs only have one form.
Also, "una poca de gracia" is non-standard.
If you're on mobile, try rotating your device and see if more options populate the word bank. You can also take a screen shot and file a bug report:
You can also switch between word bank mode and free-writing mode, at least on the desktop site.
The infinitive is "sentirse".
Internal feelings requires the reflexive verb "sentirse" instead of the regular "sentir". It's literally "to feel oneself".
No. There is no "ella" there. The "se" is reflexive. My mother feels herself a little tired today.
"Un poco" is acting as an adverb, and "cansada" is an adjective. Adverbs always come before the adjective.
It's "se siente" because "sentirse" is an -ir verb.
It seems like the trick is to think about the sentence to include "i" and "myself"/ "she" and "herself"/ "him" and "himself". We are used to dropping the yo from the beginning of sentences. That's all this is. I always feel tired translates to I always myself feel tired, and you just drop the yo. Siempre me siento cansado..... At least that's what's making sense to me.
You feel, my mother feels.
Tú te sientes, mi madre se siente.
Am I the only one who finds it a little strange when there are so many identical idomatic constructions between two languages? For example, in this sentence, it is almost like a word for word translation with "un poco cansada" and "a little tired." If that's how it is in Spanish, that's fine, but that particular inclusion of an indefinite determiner before an adverb seems like it would not be widespread cross-linguistically. I suppose what I mean is that the indefinite article doesn't seem to have much of a semantic place in the sentence, so why would it translate one-to-one with other languages? Spanish and English are not closely related at all, so is this perhaps a product of French or Spanish influence on English or vice versa?
I wouldn't call it "idiomatic". Idioms are expressions the meaning of which you cannot work out from the words alone. "To wrap your head around something" is an idiom. "A little tired" is pretty straightforward.
As for the grammar, it's bigger than just "the two languages influenced each other". The Germanic languages and the Romance languages are both Indo-European languages. They're cousins. And having developed in relative proximity to each other, they become part of what is known as a sprachbund, or "language federation". And indeed, there is the Standard Average European sprachbund, of which Germanic languages and Romance languages are members.
You are really really not the only one, but the thing is there's a ton of them. The one that startled me the most is that "I have to go to the store" is "tengo que ir a la tienda". Like, really? "have" as in "to possess" + "to" means "must" in both languages? Just bizarre. I assume it goes back to Latin.
It does indeed go back to Latin. In fact, the future tense suffixes in the Romance languages (particularly Italian) come from the present tense conjugations of the verb "habere", "to have". You can certainly have an obligation. And it developed from there.
Also, it's not "to possess" + "to", the "to" is part of the infinitive. It's "to have" + infinitive.