"Tú y yo hablamos inglés muy bien."
Translation:You and I speak English very well.
Hablamos = (we) speak in present simple tense (actions done in general, we speak to him once a weak, i read newspaper everyday)
The grammatically correct statement would be "you and i speak very good english" because you need an adjective to modify the noun 'english'. In this sentence, it doesn't translate to "you and i speak very good english" because they use 'bien', which means well, and that is an adverb not an adjective. To put it shortly the sentence in spanish cannot be translated to "you and i speak very good english" since it is not as direct of a translation as "you and i speak english very well." I hope this makes sense and is helpful.
Why is 'talk' incorrect?
When there is 'hablamos', how do we know when to use speak or talk?
They may be interchangeable in some situations. However, in this case, translating hablamos inglés to English needs to be "we speak English" because "we talk English" is not proper English.
I don't understand why talk is wrong either. I just got it wrong and don't understand why. I have always been taught that 'hablar' can mean 'talk' or 'speak', what is the difference?!
Because saying "You and I talk English" doesn't make sense. Also, speaking and talking are different. Speaking is more of a one-sided conversation and talking is more of a conversation consisting of 2 or more people.
Example: They were "talking" about how good they "spoke" English together. :)
You could get around this rule if it's from a 3rd person perspective: "They were speaking English with each other". This means that each individual person spoke to one another. This is the literal act of "talking".
In "standard" English, it is okay to say "You and I talk English very well" I guess, but it would be even MORE correct to say "You and I speak English very well", although talk is used in some varieties of English.
Is it correct if we omit the 'Tu y yo' here? If hablamos translates to "we speak" the tu y yo seems a little redundant.
Yep! Thats fine to do. A lot of times since the conjugations are so specific, the pronouns dont need to be included in the sentence.
I would say because not only is that a spelling error, but that also happens to be the subjunctive form of that verb, so it takes on a different meaning
In this sentence, it doesn't translate to "you and i speak very good english" because they use 'bien', which means well, and that is an adverb not an adjective. The sentence in spanish cannot be translated to "you and i speak very good english" since it is not as direct of a translation as "you and i speak english very well." I hope this makes sense and is helpful.
A good way to tell when to use "me" or "i" is taking away the "you and" and seeing if it makes sense. In this case, it doesnt make sense to say "me speak english very well." You would say "i speak english very well."
Lots and lots of people use "You and me" all the time and have done so for hundreds of years, therefore it's correct. Grammar books are wrong if they prescribe - rather than describe - a rule that in practice doesn't exist.
Also, you say "grammar books are wrong if they prescribe rather than describe". But, they do describe why. Madi describes why too. We're not cavemen anymore. We don't say things like ME WANT MEAT
You and me is correct in some contexts. Again, take away the 'you and' to see if its correct. In the phrase, "he is coming with you and me," it is correct to say that. This is because if you take away 'you and' it becomes "he is coming with me" which makes sense unlike "he comes with i." Also, like another commenter said, just because many people make a mistake does not make it correct. Many native speakers make grammar errors all the time. If you'd like a further explaination as to when to use what pronoun and why, look up objective vs. subjective pronouns.
I know what the official rule is, and I'm not even saying it's wrong. Please read my other comments.
I know commas aren't grammar. I was referring to syntax in general.
I don't upvote my own comments and I'm surprised you'd be insecure enough to even point out the possibility. Someone just obviously agrees with me.
You're free to think or "feel" what you want. However, that won't make you correct. I will continue to refuse to conform with lazy speech. "I done told you". "This be mines". Lol..
The Earth isn't flat btw. I'll be unfollowing this thread now so good luck with your Spanish.
Edit: Upvoted myself for you this time, lol. See you around!
Ive read the other comments, and with all due respect i don't think this is the correct place to be getting into such a debate, and frankly I'm not informed enough to have an opinion on it. OP asked why their answer was marked wrong, I tried to say why. I will look further into the debate because it is interesting, but I'm not going to reply here further for OP's sake (notifications from all the replies)
Just because a mass amount of people have ignorantly been using incorrect grammar, doesn't mean it automatically makes it correct, lol. You can't be serious, man. If you live your life using this logic and decide to have children then you're immediately putting the next generation of children at a societal disadvantage. When in doubt, just remember... "Let's eat grandpa" vs. "Let's eat, grandpa."
The grammar is only 'incorrect' because someone who didn't like it said it was. Please read up on linguistic prescriptivism vs descriptivism. Also, commas are part of punctuation, not grammar.
So if I convince people to start saying "us eat grandpa" and "us eat, grandpa" will it become correct? Every language has grammar rules. There's a reason every language has a syntax and semantics to follow. Even computer programming languages. Continuity is important. But, it's not my job to educate you on the importance of structure.
There's no reply button below so I have to reply to myself. You didn't read my comment at all: commas are not grammar. You don't pronounce commas (or full stops, brackets, ...), you only write them to make the structure of the sentence as clear as possible. This has nothing to do with linguistic prescriptivism vs descriptivism, which you haven't read up on. However: if you manage to convince most of the speakers of your language to say something in a certain way (perhaps because it's an easier way to speak), then by definition that way will become correct, because at that point, that will be the language. What do you think an Englishman from the 12th century would say of the caveman-like English spoken today, where people don't even use grammatical genders or cases anymore, and use the infinitive for nearly every person singular and plural instead of the 'correct' conjugations? Grammar is defined in unwritten rules by the speakers, not by books, no matter how much some of their writers would like to believe. Linguistics is somehow the only field in which this is apparently something controversial. Imagine a physics book claiming that gravity makes heavy things float. Obviously this is not the case, but if the physicists who wrote the book were anything like the linguistic descriptivism you're trying to sell here, they'd claim that gravity still makes heavy things float, and it's really Earth that is wrong because it doesn't follow their rules.
Also, don't vote for your own comments, it's silly.
Okay, that "SOMEONE" is me from now on! I rule! Always check with me before you say anything so as to be sure you are saying it like Tarzan would as I am declaring such is the now the proper way to say anything, okay?
You and I speak very good English should be accepted as a possible translation
You should maybe read some of the comments then you would see why what you said is incorrect. There are some very good comments above being made by people who know how this sentence needs to be translated. You can't make up your own stuff.
"Well" = state of being or feeling as in, "I feel don't feel well today." "Good" = quality, as in, "Good dog." Therefore, it is technically incorrect to say one speaks a language well (although some might use it in every day spoken conversation. A better interpretation would be, "You and I speak good English. DL should decide whether to be grammatically precise or foist off improper English. Harrumpth.
"Well" is an adverb and "good" is an adjective. Adverbs are used to describes verbs, adjectives and other adverbs and adjectives are used to describe nouns and pronouns. Here it is used to describe how they are speaking, so the use of an adverb (well) is required.
That's not how language works. If you want to emphasize something, add inflection to your voice.