Couldn't "I saw it just the other day" be accepted (if the thing I saw was feminine?) It counted me incorrect
Yes, you could but it seems this sentence was to translate seeing a woman/girl rather than an object of feminine gender. To be honest as soon as I read the sentence I thought of a woman - difficult to explain why with the Italian language. I hope it helps :)
Antonella is right, assuming the sentence is about a female is the best bet, and could be either because a generic "it" will usually take a masculine pronoun, or because of the way the speaker specifies having recently seen her. However, there are other possibilities such as "Hai visto la mia borsa/la gatta/la nuova costruzione?" so it is also accepted now :)
No. That translation does not make sense in English. Neither the "I have seen" bit nor the "right" bit. I have seen someone do something at a time in the past that is not specific. I have seen her eat snails (but I can't say when exactly). I saw here eat snails yesterday, last week, last month, on Christmas day....
Right is just a mis translation.
Oh, ya, that's right (there is some specific information about the time "when", so it must be simple past). Thanks.
Why is it vista and not visto? Is the end of the verb allowed to take on the gender of the thing seen?
Yup. With avere (auxiliary verb, like have in have seen) the participle (seen) changes if you see the direct object pronoun (l') hanging out in front.
Ho visto mia madre / L'ho vista
Abbiamo fatto la torta / L'abbiamo fatta
Avete mangiato le mele? / Le avete mangiate?
"I just saw him yesterday" means the same as "I saw him just yesterday" but the latter is more correct. I think the word just only goes before saw in the case of "I just saw him" [5 minutes ago.]
See mukkapuzza's explanation to hoelt (above) to see why this particular sentence has a female object.
Thank you, but I still don't get it as my question is about the object pronoun. What's "I saw him just the other day" in Italian then?
"L'ho visto giusto l'altro giorno."
As I said, it's written above by mukkapuzza—she does a better job of explaining it than I could.
Based on my knowledge of French the object of the verb in this sentence must be feminine because the feminine form of the past participle, vista, was used. If the object had been male then visto would have been used. Even with verbs taking the auxiliary verb avere the past participle agrees with the object of the verb when the object precedes the verb as in "L'ho vista .... " If the object follows the verb then there is no agreement as in "Ho visto la ragazza ..." Hope that helps.