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  5. "A mi papá le encanta la cerv…

"A mi papá le encanta la cerveza."

Translation:My dad loves beer.

June 8, 2018



Why is it "A mi papa"? Why not "Mi papa"?


Same reason why it's "me gusta" and not "yo gusta". It's the object of the sentence and not the subject.

Think of using "gustar" to mean "is pleasing". It would be "Beer is pleasing to my dad".

It's also why the conjugation of "gustar" depends on what is liked and not who's doing the liking "me gusta el gato" vs "me gustan los gatos"


It's defining what the indirect object pronoun 'le' is. In this instance it's defining it as 'my dad'.

A papá le encanta la cerveza - Dad loves beer.

A mi papá le encanta la cerveza - My dad loves beer.


"Mi papa encanta la cerveza." Why can't that work?


Because papá isn't said to love the beer, it is the beer that is said to enchant papá. "The beer is enchanting to my dad" or "To my dad the beer is enchanting". More literally "To my dad, him it enchants, the beer". Think Yoda.


That's understandable - Cristiano Ronaldo


But there is also one that is "Mi hermano menor vive en inglaterra" which is the same as this sentence. Only stating a fact about the person. So your younger brother living in England should fall under that same rule. But it doesn't


Vivir is a verb that typically doesn't take objects. If someone lives, he doesn't directly interact with anything; vivir just describes an inner condition of the person.

That's different with encantar. In the above sentence, you have two things interacting - the father and the beer. The beer makes the father feel something, so they will have a subject-object relationship here.


No, 'vive' isn't like 'enchanta' as it doesn't need a word infront like 'me' or 'le'. Its only those types of verbs that this applies for. Another example would be 'a mi hermano le gusta jugar el fútbol'. This is a really bad explanation but i hope it gets the point across.


It's a clitic. By definition, clitics are words in a language that are required by syntactic considerations but that do not actually add additional meaning and content to the sentence. Rather, clitics are "function" words" that serve to keep syntax from becoming confusing.


Am i the only one who goes to the discussions to clear up the confusion in their head, only to be left even more confused?

I honestly don't think i've ever studied subjects, objects, prepositions & their impact on sentence construction in my life before Duolingo.


Duolingo knows this. They know that grammar and its technical terms are difficult for people. That's why Duo avoids grammar.

You can stay away from the grammar and learn by example instead. It will take a bit longer, but it works. Also, click on the lightbulb icons before starting the lessons. That will reveal a lot of useful explanations, usually without heavy grammar.

Alternatively, you can learn some of the grammar and its terms. If you can do that, it will speed learning.


Many in these discussions have recommended spanishdict.com which has an incredible array of FREE, easy to read pieces on all sorts of usage. They even give you little quizzes. It works very well with DuoLingo. I keep the DuoLingo tab open and right next to it an open SpanishDict tab (or several tabs) to check out grammar, translations, etc.


These things are very helpful to know when you start learning a different language.


Mi papa le encanta le cerveza = my dad loves beer! Why A is kept at the start?


In your sentence you're saying that the beer loves your dad. Roughly.

Encantar doesn't really mean "to love" but rather "to enthuse" or "to enchant". Still roughly. Encantar is a gustar-like verb, which only takes an indirect object (that needs the le in front of the verb and a in front of the noun), and where subject and object positions are often switched.

A mi papá - to my dad
le encanta - is enchanting (him)
la cerveza - beer


Why not "My dad loves the beer" as in the one he is drinking not beers in general. Would that be written differently.


It would be written the same, so your sentence is a good translation. But normally if he only likes a specific beer, you'd go for "this beer" or "that beer", and respectively "esta/esa cerveza".


Is the "la" mandatory? Wouldn't "A mi papa le encanta cerveza" also be correct?


It wouldn't really make sense without the article. This sentence it talking about how your dad feel about beer in general, and for generalisations you need the article.

Without the article it sounds more like "There is some beer that my dad likes", but in a weird way of wording it.


How necessary is 'la' in front of the cerveza? I'm struggling to identify when a native Spanish speaker would use articles in front of words.


If you're stating a general truth about the subject of a sentence, you'll need a definite article in the Spanish sentence. In this case, beer, in general, is being liked by your father, so it gets the article.


The subject will almost always have an article, and here it is the subject.


'A' is grammatically required it marks the start of the clause that clarifies what 'le' is referring to, would not be needed if context made it clear.


The preposition a is always required when explicitly mentioning an indirect object.


Is this sentence the same as saying "Mi papá se gusta la cerveza?"


No, as gustar and encantar are different things. More specifically, there is a big problem with your usage of the incorrect pronoun here. If you were trying to say "My dad likes beer", you would use le, not se. Se is one of the reflexive pronouns (Spanish has a lot of these, so its OK if you're confused by this terminology.) Le is one of the indirect object pronouns. In this case, you would use indirects, as indirects are what is used here with the verb gustar


"A mí papá le encanta la cerveza" To me, my dad loves my beer. How is my translation not accepted??? I'm really frustrated by this. I get the gist of the sentence, but in this scenario they're making it clear that the speaker is saying this: (To me) (my) Dad loves (the/my) beer.


Watch the accents. It's a mi, not a mí. Para mí = "for me"; mi papá = "my dad".

A mi papá le encanta la cerveza: word by word, "To my dad to him is pleasing the beer."


uh dad and father should both be correct


The Spanish sentence is using the endearing papá, so "dad" is a more appropriate translation.


Why is it "a mi papá le encanta" but also "me encanta" without the A?


Because you're mentioning your dad separately, independently of the verb. A separate mentioning of the indirect object requires the preposition a. You can also construct the reverse cases:

  • A mi papá le encanta la cerveza. - Le encanta la cerveza.
  • A mí me encanta la cerveza. - Me encanta la cerveza.

It just depends on whether the object pronoun (le, me) is enough for you or you want or need to mention the object properly.


Le encanta la cerveza = He loves beer.

Is that what you would be saying then? And you'd add "a mi papá" if you felt it wasn't clear of whom "he" (le) referred?

I think I might just be too tired, so I'm having trouble being certain.


Yes, that's absolutely correct. :)


Why can't it be: "a mi padre" instead of a mi papá?


I wonder what your task was, because this looks like it was either an Es>En translation or a listening task.

The Spanish sentence is using the affectionate term papá just like the English translation is using the affectionate term "dad".


Depending on the exercise, it appears the correct interpretation of " encanta " is like or love, with no apparent consistency...


Encantar is pretty consistently translated as "to love" in this course, while gustar is "to like".


Papa as "father" in one as "dad" in another "encanta" is like in one and love in the other. Come on.


Write the words and the correct translations down on a piece of paper. Keep the piece of paper in front of you for a few weeks. It will clear up the confusion.

Papá = Dad

Padre = Father

Encanta = Love

Gusta = Like


Why not Mi papa …??


Your papa is the object of this sentence (specifically the indirect object), and an indirect object gets the preposition a. Beer is enchanting to him.


Ok Thank you, could you give me an example why you must put A mi...please .


Indirect objects are usually used when someone in the receiver of something. For example in "I'm giving a present to my brother", the brother is the indirect object because he receives something I give him. Notice how there's a "to" in front of him in the English sentence. In Spanish it would be "Yo le doy un regalo a mi hermano". The brother gets the preposition a here, and le is usually used in that kind of sentence as an additional indirect object marker.

A few more examples:

  • Les lee un cuento a los niños. - He is reading a book to the children.
  • Les dara agua a los árboles. - I was giving water to the trees.
  • Mi abuelo me compró una muñeca (a mí). - My grandfather bought a doll for me. (The "a mí" part is usually left out here, since the me can't refer to any other person than me anyway.)

There is a group of verbs, commonly called "gustar-like verbs", which usually only use an indirect object. In those cases the object is not a receiver, but more someone who is influenced somehow by the subject. Encantar, which is used in the above sentence, is one of those verbs. For gustar-like verbs it's common to mention the object first, then the verb, and then the subject.

  • A mi madre le gusta su regalo. - My mother likes her present. (more literally: "To my mother is pleasing her present")
  • Al maestro le encantan los libros. - The teacher loves books. (more literally: "To the teacher are enchanting the books")
  • (A mí) me falta un lápiz. - I'm missing a pencil. (more literally: "From me is missing a pencil.")


Why am I wrong in translating it as "My Dad loves his beer" - "his" is offered as a translation for "la" in the drop down translation. I don't understand.... Can someone explain this for me please?


The article la (as well as the other definite articles) generally just means "the". Your dad loves all beer, not just his. There are a couple of circumstances where a definite article can translate as a possessive adjective (i.e. "my, your, his, ..." for "el, la, los, las"), but that only happens with inalienable objects, mostly body parts and the clothes that you're wearing. Since beer is neither, that translation doesn't apply here.


Ok I find it quiete logical to go for 'A mi papa' as it marks the (in German accusative) object und 'la cerveza' is the subject. But: isn't the object then kind of doubled, as you use 'a mi papa' AND 'le'? Or is it just the way these verbs work and I just have to accept it :-P


It would rather match the dative in German: "Meinem Vater gefällt..." "Gefallen" is a direct translation of gustar. Encantar doesn't work quite as well, though.

Yes, the indirect object is doubled here, and with gustar-like verbs you need to do it. It's customary to include le and les when you have an indirect object in your sentence. You can leave those pronouns out in many cases, but it will usually sound better if you have them.


Dative is what I meant, thanks :-)


what is the difference between father and dad???


Ieharper, "father" is the formal term, matching the Spanish padre, and "dad" is a more affectionate term, matching the Spanish papá.


Why do you need "A" for "le encanta" but not for "me encanta" or "te encanta"


Caroline, you can have either version. "Le encanta la cerveza" is fine, as is "A mí me encanta la cerveza."

The me, te and le are the verbal pronouns. They are essential for the sentence and they tell us which person the sentence is about, "me", "you" or "him/her/it", respectively. You can expand these pronouns by adding the proper indirect object, which is preceded by an a. For "me" that'll be "a mí" and for "you" it's "a ti". And since le can refer to a host of people, you can specify which person exactly you're talking about:

  • A él le encanta la cerveza. - He loves beer.
  • A ella le encanta la cerveza. - She loves beer.
  • A mi padre le encanta la cerveza. - My father loves beer.
  • Al perro le encanta la cerveza. - The dog loves beer.
  • A la nación le encanta la cerveza. - The nation loves beer.


Thank you! That's a lot clearer!


My question is easier, why does la have to be before cerveza?


Larry, articles are generally placed in front of the nouns they belong to.

Also the article is used here because we're making a general statement about beer - whenever there's beer, my dad likes it.

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