Same reason why it's "me gusta" and not "yo gusta". It's the object of the sentence and not the subject.
Think of using "gustar" to mean "is pleasing". It would be "Beer is pleasing to my dad".
It's also why the conjugation of "gustar" depends on what is liked and not who's doing the liking "me gusta el gato" vs "me gustan los gatos"
It's defining what the indirect object pronoun 'le' is. In this instance it's defining it as 'my dad'.
A papá le encanta la cerveza - Dad loves beer.
A mi papá le encanta la cerveza - My dad loves beer.
Because papá isn't said to love the beer, it is the beer that is said to enchant papá. "The beer is enchanting to my dad" or "To my dad the beer is enchanting". More literally "To my dad, him it enchants, the beer". Think Yoda.
But there is also one that is "Mi hermano menor vive en inglaterra" which is the same as this sentence. Only stating a fact about the person. So your younger brother living in England should fall under that same rule. But it doesn't
Vivir is a verb that typically doesn't take objects. If someone lives, he doesn't directly interact with anything; vivir just describes an inner condition of the person.
That's different with encantar. In the above sentence, you have two things interacting - the father and the beer. The beer makes the father feel something, so they will have a subject-object relationship here.
No, 'vive' isn't like 'enchanta' as it doesn't need a word infront like 'me' or 'le'. Its only those types of verbs that this applies for. Another example would be 'a mi hermano le gusta jugar el fútbol'. This is a really bad explanation but i hope it gets the point across.
It's a clitic. By definition, clitics are words in a language that are required by syntactic considerations but that do not actually add additional meaning and content to the sentence. Rather, clitics are "function" words" that serve to keep syntax from becoming confusing.
To my dad it him charms or delights the beer. That is the literal translation. it delights him. a mi papá( to my dad) optional.
Re Joe post. Which is not accepted by DL. Alternative translations would be 'is bewitched by, or enchanted by' but I'm not sure that is what DL is trying to say. It makes it sound as though papa is an alcoholic. The English translation given is loves, which also abuses the meaning of that word. 'Delighted by' seems to be the only feasible translation.
I wonder if 'for my dad, the love is of beer' might be a good halfway translation--grammatical (if tortured) English reflecting the grammar of the Spanish oruginal
I would just suggest to learn the construction of gustar-like verbs and not mangle the English while trying to match very different grammar.
You are correct, joe814027, that "le" is the indirect object pronoun and thus means "him." You are also correct that "it" is the Spanish null subject.
However, my literal translation is "To him, my dad, it–the beer–is enchanting." Now I know that I did not keep the complete word order, but "encantarse" translates into English present progressive tense, with the indirect object pronoun also functioning as a reflexive pronoun. When it does not, then use of the literal meaning of the word (present tense Spanish encanta = enchants) distorts the meaning of the original Spanish sentence so that dad is enchanting the beer, rather than vice versa, because the "a" is then used as a clitic a instead of as the signal of the genitive case.
Indirect objects are a product of the dative case, not the genetive. And there is no null subject in Spanish. "La cerveza" is the subject.
Mi papa le encanta le cerveza = my dad loves beer! Why A is kept at the start?
In your sentence you're saying that the beer loves your dad. Roughly.
Encantar doesn't really mean "to love" but rather "to enthuse" or "to enchant". Still roughly. Encantar is a gustar-like verb, which only takes an indirect object (that needs the le in front of the verb and a in front of the noun), and where subject and object positions are often switched.
A mi papá - to my dad
le encanta - is enchanting (him)
la cerveza - beer
Am i the only one who goes to the discussions to clear up the confusion in their head, only to be left even more confused?
I honestly don't think i've ever studied subjects, objects, prepositions & their impact on sentence construction in my life before Duolingo.
Duolingo knows this. They know that grammar and its technical terms are difficult for people. That's why Duo avoids grammar.
You can stay away from the grammar and learn by example instead. It will take a bit longer, but it works. Also, click on the lightbulb icons before starting the lessons. That will reveal a lot of useful explanations, usually without heavy grammar.
Alternatively, you can learn some of the grammar and its terms. If you can do that, it will speed learning.
These things are very helpful to know when you start learning a different language.
Why not "My dad loves the beer" as in the one he is drinking not beers in general. Would that be written differently.
It would be written the same, so your sentence is a good translation. But normally if he only likes a specific beer, you'd go for "this beer" or "that beer", and respectively "esta/esa cerveza".
Is the "la" mandatory? Wouldn't "A mi papa le encanta cerveza" also be correct?
It wouldn't really make sense without the article. This sentence it talking about how your dad feel about beer in general, and for generalisations you need the article.
Without the article it sounds more like "There is some beer that my dad likes", but in a weird way of wording it.
The Spanish sentence is using the endearing papá, so "dad" is a more appropriate translation.
The preposition a is always required when explicitly mentioning an indirect object.
How necessary is 'la' in front of the cerveza? I'm struggling to identify when a native Spanish speaker would use articles in front of words.
The subject will almost always have an article, and here it is the subject.
If you're stating a general truth about the subject of a sentence, you'll need a definite article in the Spanish sentence. In this case, beer, in general, is being liked by your father, so it gets the article.
Also add encanta but not sure of the part before all i know is mi and se and te. So why le?
"A mis hermanas les encanta la cerveza."
It's me, te, or le, but hardly se, unless someone loves themself. The le is a 3rd-person pronoun ("to him/her/it") and refers back to "a mi papá". With "a mis hermanas" it will become les since you have multiple objects now.
Because you're mentioning your dad separately, independently of the verb. A separate mentioning of the indirect object requires the preposition a. You can also construct the reverse cases:
- A mi papá le encanta la cerveza. - Le encanta la cerveza.
- A mí me encanta la cerveza. - Me encanta la cerveza.
It just depends on whether the object pronoun (le, me) is enough for you or you want or need to mention the object properly.
Le encanta la cerveza = He loves beer.
Is that what you would be saying then? And you'd add "a mi papá" if you felt it wasn't clear of whom "he" (le) referred?
I think I might just be too tired, so I'm having trouble being certain.
I wonder what your task was, because this looks like it was either an Es>En translation or a listening task.
The Spanish sentence is using the affectionate term papá just like the English translation is using the affectionate term "dad".
Depending on the exercise, it appears the correct interpretation of " encanta " is like or love, with no apparent consistency...
Encantar is pretty consistently translated as "to love" in this course, while gustar is "to like".
Write the words and the correct translations down on a piece of paper. Keep the piece of paper in front of you for a few weeks. It will clear up the confusion.
Papá = Dad
Padre = Father
Encanta = Love
Gusta = Like
Your dad is the indirect object in this sentence, so he needs the preposition a in front. The sentence more directly translates as "Beer is enchanting to my dad."
Your papa is the object of this sentence (specifically the indirect object), and an indirect object gets the preposition a. Beer is enchanting to him.
Ok Thank you, could you give me an example why you must put A mi...please .
Indirect objects are usually used when someone in the receiver of something. For example in "I'm giving a present to my brother", the brother is the indirect object because he receives something I give him. Notice how there's a "to" in front of him in the English sentence. In Spanish it would be "Yo le doy un regalo a mi hermano". The brother gets the preposition a here, and le is usually used in that kind of sentence as an additional indirect object marker.
A few more examples:
- Les lee un cuento a los niños. - He is reading a book to the children.
- Les dara agua a los árboles. - I was giving water to the trees.
- Mi abuelo me compró una muñeca (a mí). - My grandfather bought a doll for me. (The "a mí" part is usually left out here, since the me can't refer to any other person than me anyway.)
There is a group of verbs, commonly called "gustar-like verbs", which usually only use an indirect object. In those cases the object is not a receiver, but more someone who is influenced somehow by the subject. Encantar, which is used in the above sentence, is one of those verbs. For gustar-like verbs it's common to mention the object first, then the verb, and then the subject.
- A mi madre le gusta su regalo. - My mother likes her present. (more literally: "To my mother is pleasing her present")
- Al maestro le encantan los libros. - The teacher loves books. (more literally: "To the teacher are enchanting the books")
- (A mí) me falta un lápiz. - I'm missing a pencil. (more literally: "From me is missing a pencil.")
Thank you very much...I will concentrate on this and hopefully it will be much clearer x
The article la (as well as the other definite articles) generally just means "the". Your dad loves all beer, not just his. There are a couple of circumstances where a definite article can translate as a possessive adjective (i.e. "my, your, his, ..." for "el, la, los, las"), but that only happens with inalienable objects, mostly body parts and the clothes that you're wearing. Since beer is neither, that translation doesn't apply here.
Ok I find it quiete logical to go for 'A mi papa' as it marks the (in German accusative) object und 'la cerveza' is the subject. But: isn't the object then kind of doubled, as you use 'a mi papa' AND 'le'? Or is it just the way these verbs work and I just have to accept it :-P
It would rather match the dative in German: "Meinem Vater gefällt..." "Gefallen" is a direct translation of gustar. Encantar doesn't work quite as well, though.
Yes, the indirect object is doubled here, and with gustar-like verbs you need to do it. It's customary to include le and les when you have an indirect object in your sentence. You can leave those pronouns out in many cases, but it will usually sound better if you have them.