"A mi hermana le gusta la música."
Translation:My sister likes music.
With gustar, the literal translation is "Music is pleasing to my sister."
Gustar is preceded by a required indirect object pronoun (in this case le) which indicates that the person pleased is 3rd person singular. (My sister = 3rd person singular = le)
Then to clarify who the le is, an a-phrase is added: a mi hermana.
My father likes music. A mi padre le gusta la música.
My friends like music. A mis amigos les gusta la música.
I think I understand this. So, since 'my sister' is 3rd person singular direct object in this construction, could the sentence be reordered as "Le gusta la música a mi hermana." ??
The only way to indicate possession in Spanish is by using genitive case. For example, in "The music is pleasing to my sister/A mi hermana le gusta la música," "to my sister" and "a mi hermana" are equivalent genitive prepositional phrases indicating ownership, which Spanish and English share because of their Romance Language roots.
Indirect object pronouns are mandatory Spanish grammar even when a sentence contains an indirect object noun. Because indirect object nouns are in genitive case (and hence in prepositional phrase form), they can go either at the beginning of a sentence, as in "A mi hermana le gusta la música" (To her, my sister, the music, is pleasing), or at the end, as in "Le gusta la música a mi hermana" (The music is pleasing to her, my sister).
Spanish doesn't have a genitive case, I'm guessing you mean dative case, but the sentence you are using as an example doesn't state possession of any sorts.
With gustar you slap an A in front of the sentence, same with encantar or a few other verbs. The thing that is confusing me is what is "la" doing in front of "musica" ? If you say "me gusta escucho musica en mi dormitorio" it's cool. You can omit the "la". However, then "la" just pops back up after gustar as if it belongs there. "my sister likes the music"...me tarzan, spanish make the headache happen.
The la is necessary because the sentence in spanish reads "Music is pleasing to my sister" and music is the subject. Subject nouns require the article in front in spanish. We learned earlier that "Summer is fun" had to be translated as "El verano es divertido" So we need la música.
"La" precedes "música" because it is the article that is gender-matched with "música." Also, "música" is a general, rather than specific, noun. That is why the article is needed with the direct object.
I think le is used for object pronouns and se is used for reflexive verbs .
CorrinMurr, for a native English speaker the line between an indirect object pronoun and a reflexive pronoun is very murky, especially when the verb is a reflexive verb. I myself do not completely understand it. This is what I do know ...
"Le" is always an indirect object pronoun. Depending on the person and number of the noun that the indirect pronoun is replacing, "me" (me), "te" (you singular), "le" (him, her, it), "nos" (us), "os" (you plural), or "les" (them, you formal) is used. When the indirect object pronouns "le" or "les" are followed by direct object pronouns that begin with the letter "l," the pronoun "se" is substituted for "le" or "les."
Also, when a verb is made reflexive by the use of a reflexive pronoun, the verb can be translated to English present progressive tense, and the direct object is essentially transmuted into the subject of the sentence. At the same time, the reflexive pronoun is also functioning as an indirect object pronoun. Thus, it can be translated as the null subject pronoun "it." Hence, "Me lo gusta" has "me" as the IO pronoun and "lo" as the DO pronoun. Using genitive case, "Me lo gusta" literally translates as "Me it pleases." Because genitive case prepositional phrases can be converted into subjects of sentences, "Me it pleases" converts colloquially to "It pleases me/I like it." "I like it" is the most colloquial interpretation.
Your entire last paragraph confuses me a bit. There's neither a reflexive pronoun in your example, nor has it anything to do with a genitive (possessive) case.
"Me lo gusta" doesn't work. Gustar does not take direct objects.
The last part of expressions like "Me gusta la música" is the subject. Music acts on me in a pleasing manner, so you can't replace it by lo or la. If you want to replace it, you need a subject pronoun:
- Me gusta la música. - Ella me gusta. / Me gusta ella.
Diane72505, if a sentence has a pronoun as the direct object and a noun as the indirect object, the sentence still syntactically requires an indirect object pronoun. For example, "It is pleasing to my sister" gets translated literally as "A mi hermana le lo gusta." However, THIS denotative translation is WRONG. Because "le lo" is hard to say, Spanish grammar and usage changes the word "le" into the easier-to-pronounce "se." Thus, the RIGHT translation of "It is pleasing to my sister" is "A mi hermana se lo gusta." An alternate correct interpretation is "Se lo gusta a mi hermana."