That's not what's happening here, though. In this case you'd also add an a even if the object weren't a person. It's an indirect object here, which always receives an a.
A los árboles les encanta todo el sol. - The trees love all the sunshine.
Al libro le faltan algunas páginas. - A few pages are missing from the book.
Or even to not be polite, as the case maybe. In the northwest, we use ma'am a lot in the service industry. If someone of a lower income class goes to a high end store, they may be met with something like this snide address, 'I'm so sorry ma'am, but our store does not cater to your, (pause, while not so delicately looking down the nose), your particular taste or size.'
"Miss", I believe, would be "señorita". The closest English word to "señora" seems to be "ma'am". As a Texan, this seems rational to me. I use "ma'am" a lot. But I think it's a weird case of American Southerners having grammar rules that are in line with a romance language. It's all somewhat formal and definitely respectful when talking to strangers (in my opinion).
"Ladies and Gentlemen" as well as "Señoras y señores" are fixed phrases, so that translation may be kinda wonky. For instance, "Gentleman", when used as an addressing, is usually not translated as señor, but as caballero.
"Buenas tardes, damas y caballeros" is just as popular.
For music playing at the time that the question is asked I would use "this" music to be more specific in the same way you would do in English if you were asking somebody in a club whether they love music in general or the music that is currently playing. So "Señora, ¿a usted le encanta esta música?".
So it's kind of the opposite of how we'd say it in English then? To ask if someone likes music, in general, I would say, "Do you like music?". But if I wanted to be more specific, I would say, "Do you like the music?" (like if we are currently hearing music playing), or "Do you like this music?" (whether currently listening to music together or perhaps pointing to a music CD).
It's not the only possibility in Spanish, but it what you'd usually do when the context isn't clear: you'd specifically reference something.
If you're at a concert, or listening to music, and music is already the topic, you can use "Te gusta la música?" just as well. If you want to ask whether you like music in general in that situation, you could just add generalmente.
I put "Madam do you love the music?" (specific) and was marked correct. Yet... the given answer in English is "Ma'am do you love music?" In general. These two sentences mean something a little different, but they're both correct I guess. When a Spanish speaker MEANS "Do you love THE music (playing right now)?" what do they say? The 'la' confuses me to no end; when do I put it in, when do I leave it out?
Charlotte, please note that usted is the formal "you" form, which you use with señores and señoras, not with your friends or family.
Le is a 3rd-person indirect object pronoun. It is the indirect-object form for él, ella and usted and is used for either gender. So it mostly translates as "to him", "to her", "to it" or "to you".
When you're forming a sentence with a gustar-like verb, like encantar in this case, you need to have it accompanied by an indirect object pronoun, which refers to the loving person. So the le here is basically an additional "to you" in this case.
Thank you, RyagonIV! My limited knowledge of French got in my way since (from the French) I could only think of the "le" as being masculine and in this sentence both the ladies and the music are feminine - so I got really confused. You definitely cleared it up for me.
found this: If we have been talking about your preferences all along, and I want to ask which one you like, there's no change of focus, so I'll say either • "¿Cuál te gusta más?" or • "¿Cuál le gusta más?" But if we've been talking about my preferences and I want to shift the focus to you, then I'll ask • "¿A ti, cuál te gusta más?" or • "¿A usted, cuál le gusta más?"
Truth, that running together in Spanish is natural and very common. I'd argue that any language does it to a degree.
If you have two vowel sounds next to each other, they will merge somewhat, especially if one of those vowels is a weak one, meaning 'i' or 'u'. 'I' will then get reduced to an (English) 'y' sound, and 'u' to an (English) 'w' sound. So yes, the first syllable of "a usted" will sound like "oust".
Mayerhofer, Spanish generally doesn't use hyphens.
When a Spanish word ends with a 'd', you will barely be able to hear it, and it might sound close to an 'l' or 'r', since those sounds are all formed in the same area of the mouth. It's a very soft sound. Note that the spelling of the Spanish word for "city" is ciudad.
For me it's helpful to think of these two verbs in my mind with their literal meaning, "the music enchants you?" (Or "the music pleases you?" for gustar.) I'm not sure why most Spanish language programs think it will be easier for English speakers to conceptualize as "I like it" or "I love it" instead of "it pleases me" or "it enchants me." It's less common in English to say "it pleases me" but at least the grammar is the same.
I've gotten used to it by now and know to look for ma + 'am, but it's flat out wrong for ma'am to be broken up as two words. An apostrophe signals a missing letter, and is very common to contractions but is not itself an indicator of a contraction. "Don't" is do + not, with the o not being replaced by apostrophe, becoming do + n't. Madame is a single word, with the d colloquially dropped and replaced by apostrophe to get ma'am. Similarly o'er is colloquial for over, not o + ver. It is a misunderstanding of how apostrophes work in English to treat them as though they signal contractions. They merely are commonly found co-occurring with contractions because contractions often drop letters.
It's because of the unusual construction of this phrase. Instead of usted being the subject, it's the object of the verb. Also complicated by the fact that there's an inversion going on to form a question.
Here's a simpler example: La música encanta al grupo/la música encanta a la clase - the music enchants the group/the class, you need "al" to connect a masculine object and "a la" to connect a feminine object to encanta.
Using the same structure as above with the object at the end of the sentence, you could ask "le encanta esta música a usted?"
"A usted" is moved to the front of the sentence in common usage but still needs the "a" as it would at the back of the sentence.
Im getting confused about the personal 'a'. I'm really pretty clueless with finding the pattern tbh. Is it literally because the statement is personal to the person referred to as ive noticed it comes in with this set I'm currently doing and thats been all about personal likes or dislikes?
I was a bit confused about that initially too, and tbh I think "personal a" is a horrible name for what it is.
The "personal a" is Spanish is used when referring to a specific person or people. That's pretty much it! People get it and things don't.
Obviously names are always referring to specific people and always take the a. Things that Here are some of the gray areas/edge cases where distinguishing gets tricky:
If you're referring to a specific person by a title or job, you use personal a, but if you're referring to a generic/interchangeable person with that job or title, you don't. e.g. "I need to visit a dentist" (generic description of a type of person) vs "I need to visit my dentist" (specific person).
Likewise a group of generic/interchangeable people, e.g. "I love to listen to the orchestra," does not take the personal a, but you would use it if referring to a specific group of people, e.g. "I need to give the performers these last minute script changes." In the first example the speaker is referring to her generalized taste in entertainment, while in the second that speaker has specific people he needs to give those changes to.
Pets are also a tricky area. People tend to think of their pets as having an individual, specific identity, and Spanish grammar reflects this by using the personal a. Most non-pet animals won't use the personal a, but for someone who is a really big animal lover and believes animals have souls and individual personalities, etc, even if they're just a raccoon, someone like that might use the personal a when talking about a specific raccoon.
Cities and countries are considered to be personified when specified by name, so if you want to visit "Madrid" it would get the personal A, but if you just want to visit "an English-speaking country" without a specific one in mind, you wouldn't.
This is a common thing to get mixed up - indirect object pronouns are not gendered, both masculine and feminine singular third-person use "le." You're thinking of the direct object pronouns, where masculine gets 'lo" and feminine gets "la."
A reminder, direct objects have actions performed directly on them. "Are you reading the book? Yes, I'm reading it." = "Lees el libro? Si, lo leo." There you use the direct object "lo" because book/libro is masculine and a direct object.
Indirect objects have an action performed for or to them. In English they usually have "for" or "to" in front of them, and in Spanish they usually have "a" or "para." "Are you buying something for Carlos? Yes, I'm buying a book for him." "Compras algo para Carlos? Si, le compro un libro." There you use the indirect object "le" because Carlos is singular and an indirect object (the book is bought FOR him).
One more wrench to throw in there: when a sentence has both an indirect and a direct object, anytime they both start with an "L," "le" and "les" becomes "se." "Are you buying that book for Carla? Yes, I'm buying it for her." "Compras ese libro para Carla? Si, se la compro." Here you use the direct object "la" for Carla because she's feminine and singular, and the indirect object "le" for the book, but since you can't say "le la," it becomes "se la."
"Miss" is "señorita." It may not be common in all English speaking parts of the world to use ma'am (though it's alive and well in the south), but the meaning of Spanish words doesn't change just because the culture of English-speaking countries does. Señora still means madame/ma'am.
Instead of approaching it like, "how would I advise a Spanish person to communicate this in a real-world situation in an English speaking country, taking into account English norms?" you just need to faithfully translate the sentence into English, using English grammar but not English norms.
"Le encanta mucho" sounds like a pleonasm, the word mucho is already included in the definition of encantar. Think of this verb as a superlative of gustar. You could say "Me gusta mucho", but not "Me encanta mucho", you can also say "Eres muy hermosa", but not "Eres muy preciosa", since preciosa means 'very beautiful'.
Ma'am is an abreviation of madam (or madame). Im not sure in American English, but in England it has two meanings that have you wondering what our past was about.
1) a polite and respectful way to address a lady (that can be a miss and vice versa, but with the catch that when you look at either word's meaning there are some miss' and Mrs' that don't fit the descript of madame unless you take the other meaning).
2) a brothel queen.