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"Señora, ¿a usted le encanta la música?"

Translation:Ma'am, do you love music?

June 10, 2018



Since they say 'la musica' how do you tell if they mean 'do you love music (in general)' or 'do you love the music (that's playing here)'?


Context only.


This sentence seems kind of unnatural to me. A person might say that they LOVE music, but to ask someone, you would say, "Do you LIKE music?"


Same in Spanish.


It’s pretty much the same in every language. But I guess there are situations where this could work, e.g. in a concert:

Singer: Hey guys, do you like music?

Crowd: Yeah!

Singer: Do you LOVE music?

Crowd: YEAAAAH!!


Perfect you know how to explain something ÷]




On the previous identical foil, I answered, "Ma'am, do you love the music." It was called wrong; BUT, one might really ask if someone loved THE music. Since we cannot tell context here, I think "the" music should also be correct. I submitted that.


I'm a native English speaker and no expert, but I agree with you.


Thanks for submitting that. The answer is now accepted, but consider a typo. (That of course caused me to come here to comments for explanation.)


It didn't accept it for me.


Marked it wrong for me


Same, and I agree.


Why "a" in front of usted?


Usted is the indirect object in this sentence (the music is enchanting to you), and indirect objects always receive an a.


When talking about people (or living beings in general), you usually add "a" before referring to him/her/it.

Conozco mi libro - I know my book

Conozco a mis amigos - I know my friends

Conozco a mi perro - I know my dog


That's not what's happening here, though. In this case you'd also add an a even if the object weren't a person. It's an indirect object here, which always receives an a.

A los árboles les encanta todo el sol. - The trees love all the sunshine.
Al libro le faltan algunas páginas. - A few pages are missing from the book.


Addressing a woman as "Lady" is not as polite as "Ma'am".
Dictionary.com gives this: "used in direct address: usually offensive in the singular. Lady, out of my way, please."


We dont use Ma'am in Ireland or England


I use "madam" and it is accepted.


Agree... madam would be better


Madam was not one of the choices given! Only Ma and am


Agree. Annoying Americanism when the English English is not given as an option!


Ma'am is not commonly used in the US either.


I can assure you that ma'am is used constantly in the southern American states where I live !


Agreed. And not just there. It is used in the north and the midwest.


Used in Canada too I guess it depends where and by whom you were raised. I use it all the time.


I'm from the southern part of the United States and "ma'am" is used everyday to address older women or to be polite to a woman you do not know.


Or even to not be polite, as the case maybe. In the northwest, we use ma'am a lot in the service industry. If someone of a lower income class goes to a high end store, they may be met with something like this snide address, 'I'm so sorry ma'am, but our store does not cater to your, (pause, while not so delicately looking down the nose), your particular taste or size.'


I think 'Miss' should be correct as well. Using Ma'am is very specific to US culture.


"Miss", I believe, would be "señorita". The closest English word to "señora" seems to be "ma'am". As a Texan, this seems rational to me. I use "ma'am" a lot. But I think it's a weird case of American Southerners having grammar rules that are in line with a romance language. It's all somewhat formal and definitely respectful when talking to strangers (in my opinion).


Mrs would be better. Miss would be señorita.


i used mrs. and got it wrong


I would never address a woman as "Mrs." unless her last name followed, i.e. "Mrs. Smith."


Señora could also be translated to "Lady" as in the example "Ladies and Gentlemen" which is "Señoras y Señor".


"Ladies and Gentlemen" as well as "Señoras y señores" are fixed phrases, so that translation may be kinda wonky. For instance, "Gentleman", when used as an addressing, is usually not translated as señor, but as caballero.

"Buenas tardes, damas y caballeros" is just as popular.


shouldn't "Mrs" be accepted?


You wouldn't use that without the last name..ma'am is a better translation


I have been told that my Spanish pronunciation is excellent, but suddenly within the last month my pronunciation is being marked wrong every time. Is this happening to anyone else?


Could it be a new fault in your device? I distrust the voice recognition on my tablet as I am frequently marked correct before I have even finished the sentence!


In the verbal sentence, I don't even hear the "a" at the beginning of the question. Do Spanish speakers really say this "a" all the time?


...when danced to under the starlight... Seriously, though, I think one would ask if someone "likes" music, not "loves" it.


Do you like THE music? (How can you say this in Spanish?)


For music playing at the time that the question is asked I would use "this" music to be more specific in the same way you would do in English if you were asking somebody in a club whether they love music in general or the music that is currently playing. So "Señora, ¿a usted le encanta esta música?".


Si se quiere ser más específico, se podria decir ¿ A usted le encanta esta canción?


why isn't the question "Do you love the music', since la proceeds the noun?


The Spanish sentence is used as a generalisation: "Is music, in general, enchanting you?" General statements about the subject of a sentence need a definite article in front of that subject.


So it's kind of the opposite of how we'd say it in English then? To ask if someone likes music, in general, I would say, "Do you like music?". But if I wanted to be more specific, I would say, "Do you like the music?" (like if we are currently hearing music playing), or "Do you like this music?" (whether currently listening to music together or perhaps pointing to a music CD).


Not really opposite, you'd use "la música" (or "esta música", respectively) in both these circumstances.


There's a difference in context when asking

Do you like/love music? Do you like/love THE music?

How would you be able to ask these questions when in spanish you attached articles before the noun? Example: la musica = music OR "the music"


If you're asking about specific music, you can just use a demonstrative in Spanish: "¿Te gusta esta música?"


This is interesting: in Spanish one could say only"this" music to specify a specific piece or a concert? (In English, "the" music could refer to something we were listening to at the moment.)


It's not the only possibility in Spanish, but it what you'd usually do when the context isn't clear: you'd specifically reference something.

If you're at a concert, or listening to music, and music is already the topic, you can use "Te gusta la música?" just as well. If you want to ask whether you like music in general in that situation, you could just add generalmente.


Don't you just love the music? Would sound more natural in English !


Certainly, but that is not what the sentence wants to express. It's likely not even about a certain type/piece of music.


Offering "Ma" and "'am" as two separate options needed to build one English word is confusing! (And I am annoyed that this peculiar choice on the part of the app ruined my in-a-row perfection streak.)


"Lady, do you love the music" if wrong I would like to know how to say that?


It's an alright translation, though the addressing "lady" tends to sound a bit odd sometimes. Unless she's actually a noblewoman, in which case you'd address her as dama in Spanish.


I used "Ms" and got it wrong.


The abbreviation "Ms" rather matches señorita and should only be used when you also mention the name of the lady.


What is wron with mrs?


The abbreviation "Mrs" should only be used together with the name of the lady. "Madam" or "ma'am" is better as a standalone addressing.


Almost nothing only that mrs is when you say "hello mrs. Fraduz


Cause you need to say a NAME after mrs. Lol and it doesnt say a name ☆_☆<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<


Madam should be equally correct as Ma'am is the contraction


It IS accepted lool ☆☆ ▪︎▪︎


I put "Madam do you love the music?" (specific) and was marked correct. Yet... the given answer in English is "Ma'am do you love music?" In general. These two sentences mean something a little different, but they're both correct I guess. When a Spanish speaker MEANS "Do you love THE music (playing right now)?" what do they say? The 'la' confuses me to no end; when do I put it in, when do I leave it out?


SpaceBear, I'm STILL having trouble figuring out the rules for when to use el/la. But I if you want to specify "the music" as opposed to "music in general", I think they use "este/esta".


Thanks Julie! That makes sense about the este/esta. And I'm glad to hear I'm not the only one with el/la trouble ^.^ Good luck!


Im sorry why is the A necessary again? and can this be said with out it and still be correct ?


The 'A usted' is generally optional. If you include 'usted' (or any noun explaining who 'le' or 'les' is) you must precede it with the preposition 'a'. If you left both the 'a' and 'usted' out it would be correct.


I understand the "a usted encanta" as meaning "pleasing to you," but I don't know how to literally translate "le." Is it a masculine objective form of the informal (usted) "you?"


Charlotte, please note that usted is the formal "you" form, which you use with señores and señoras, not with your friends or family.

Le is a 3rd-person indirect object pronoun. It is the indirect-object form for él, ella and usted and is used for either gender. So it mostly translates as "to him", "to her", "to it" or "to you".

When you're forming a sentence with a gustar-like verb, like encantar in this case, you need to have it accompanied by an indirect object pronoun, which refers to the loving person. So the le here is basically an additional "to you" in this case.


Thank you, RyagonIV! My limited knowledge of French got in my way since (from the French) I could only think of the "le" as being masculine and in this sentence both the ladies and the music are feminine - so I got really confused. You definitely cleared it up for me.


can't I use "lady" instead of "madam"


Ktrez, using "lady" as an addressing is usually considered somewhat rude.


found this: If we have been talking about your preferences all along, and I want to ask which one you like, there's no change of focus, so I'll say either • "¿Cuál te gusta más?" or • "¿Cuál le gusta más?" But if we've been talking about my preferences and I want to shift the focus to you, then I'll ask • "¿A ti, cuál te gusta más?" or • "¿A usted, cuál le gusta más?"


I put "Ma'am, do you love the music?" and was marked wrong. What if I wanted to ask "Ma'am, do you love the music?", how would you ask that?


Pqpqr, it would be the same, "Señora, ¿le encanta la música?"


Usted was the correct answer but was not an available word from which to choose.


"usted" sounds like "ustell"


Dan, that's how it's mostly pronounced. If a Spanish word ends with a 'd', that 'd' is spoken as a very soft voiced 'th' sound (like in "this"), which tends to sound like 'l'.


Ma'am is a contraction of Madam, and as such should never be divided the way it is here.


I still have a major problem with how this woman pronounces the words; mostly that she runs them together to the point that I need to guess what words she actually said. Do native Spanish people do that? Would "a usted" be pronounced "ousted," for instance.


Truth, that running together in Spanish is natural and very common. I'd argue that any language does it to a degree.

If you have two vowel sounds next to each other, they will merge somewhat, especially if one of those vowels is a weak one, meaning 'i' or 'u'. 'I' will then get reduced to an (English) 'y' sound, and 'u' to an (English) 'w' sound. So yes, the first syllable of "a usted" will sound like "oust".



Is that a hyphenated word? He said a usl-le. have not heard that one yet. It is like his sudar with is spelled cuidad.


Mayerhofer, Spanish generally doesn't use hyphens.

When a Spanish word ends with a 'd', you will barely be able to hear it, and it might sound close to an 'l' or 'r', since those sounds are all formed in the same area of the mouth. It's a very soft sound. Note that the spelling of the Spanish word for "city" is ciudad.


Done with the la música=music


I can't understand this mush mouthed woman except at slow speed!


Since when is Ma am (two words) a translation for Senora. The correct word, Madam is NOT GIVEN!!!


I believe Ma'am is short for Madam. It technically is NOT a contraction which is a joining of two words as isn't or you'll. Why don't they give ma'am as a possibility rather than ma and am?


Nancy, the way Duolingo is programmed, it apparently has difficulties interpreting apostrophes in the middle of a word correctly. On instead of making a word tile with "ma'am", two separate tiles will be generated.


Is "Señora, quieres encanta la musica?" Sounds correct?


John, no, that sentence doesn't work. What do you want to express?


Forgive this frivolous comment, but this construction has to be one of my least favorite in all of my language learning. Will it ever feel natural? :'(


For me it's helpful to think of these two verbs in my mind with their literal meaning, "the music enchants you?" (Or "the music pleases you?" for gustar.) I'm not sure why most Spanish language programs think it will be easier for English speakers to conceptualize as "I like it" or "I love it" instead of "it pleases me" or "it enchants me." It's less common in English to say "it pleases me" but at least the grammar is the same.


Ms do you love the music


I've gotten used to it by now and know to look for ma + 'am, but it's flat out wrong for ma'am to be broken up as two words. An apostrophe signals a missing letter, and is very common to contractions but is not itself an indicator of a contraction. "Don't" is do + not, with the o not being replaced by apostrophe, becoming do + n't. Madame is a single word, with the d colloquially dropped and replaced by apostrophe to get ma'am. Similarly o'er is colloquial for over, not o + ver. It is a misunderstanding of how apostrophes work in English to treat them as though they signal contractions. They merely are commonly found co-occurring with contractions because contractions often drop letters.


Still do not understand why it's "a" usted.


It's because of the unusual construction of this phrase. Instead of usted being the subject, it's the object of the verb. Also complicated by the fact that there's an inversion going on to form a question.

Here's a simpler example: La música encanta al grupo/la música encanta a la clase - the music enchants the group/the class, you need "al" to connect a masculine object and "a la" to connect a feminine object to encanta.

Using the same structure as above with the object at the end of the sentence, you could ask "le encanta esta música a usted?"

"A usted" is moved to the front of the sentence in common usage but still needs the "a" as it would at the back of the sentence.


The combining of words in the normal speed audio is so confusing. She is saying "austed" like "Audi" or "ousted," not "a-usted" That maybe how it's said by native speakers, but in lessons it doesn't give the student a chance.


Every. Single. Time.


Ma'am should not be two words, the pieces dont have meaning separately


Why doesn't he ask "te" instead of "le"?


Te would be used with tú. Usted pairs with le instead.


Im getting confused about the personal 'a'. I'm really pretty clueless with finding the pattern tbh. Is it literally because the statement is personal to the person referred to as ive noticed it comes in with this set I'm currently doing and thats been all about personal likes or dislikes?


I was a bit confused about that initially too, and tbh I think "personal a" is a horrible name for what it is.

The "personal a" is Spanish is used when referring to a specific person or people. That's pretty much it! People get it and things don't.

Obviously names are always referring to specific people and always take the a. Things that Here are some of the gray areas/edge cases where distinguishing gets tricky:

  • If you're referring to a specific person by a title or job, you use personal a, but if you're referring to a generic/interchangeable person with that job or title, you don't. e.g. "I need to visit a dentist" (generic description of a type of person) vs "I need to visit my dentist" (specific person).

  • Likewise a group of generic/interchangeable people, e.g. "I love to listen to the orchestra," does not take the personal a, but you would use it if referring to a specific group of people, e.g. "I need to give the performers these last minute script changes." In the first example the speaker is referring to her generalized taste in entertainment, while in the second that speaker has specific people he needs to give those changes to.

  • Pets are also a tricky area. People tend to think of their pets as having an individual, specific identity, and Spanish grammar reflects this by using the personal a. Most non-pet animals won't use the personal a, but for someone who is a really big animal lover and believes animals have souls and individual personalities, etc, even if they're just a raccoon, someone like that might use the personal a when talking about a specific raccoon.

  • Cities and countries are considered to be personified when specified by name, so if you want to visit "Madrid" it would get the personal A, but if you just want to visit "an English-speaking country" without a specific one in mind, you wouldn't.

(Edit: spacing)


Thanks Emily. That does make it a lot clearer and I suppose makes it more complex as well because it also says the meaning of the personal a can fluctuate with a person's belief, but I can the code more clearly thanks.


'Ma'am' was not an option in the boxes, only 'Ma' for Señora.


Was there a box with "am?" It's really dumb but Duolingo breaks it up like it's two words and will take "ma am" as the correct two blocks.


Why the masculine "usted le" when referring to a female?


This is a common thing to get mixed up - indirect object pronouns are not gendered, both masculine and feminine singular third-person use "le." You're thinking of the direct object pronouns, where masculine gets 'lo" and feminine gets "la."

A reminder, direct objects have actions performed directly on them. "Are you reading the book? Yes, I'm reading it." = "Lees el libro? Si, lo leo." There you use the direct object "lo" because book/libro is masculine and a direct object.

Indirect objects have an action performed for or to them. In English they usually have "for" or "to" in front of them, and in Spanish they usually have "a" or "para." "Are you buying something for Carlos? Yes, I'm buying a book for him." "Compras algo para Carlos? Si, le compro un libro." There you use the indirect object "le" because Carlos is singular and an indirect object (the book is bought FOR him).

One more wrench to throw in there: when a sentence has both an indirect and a direct object, anytime they both start with an "L," "le" and "les" becomes "se." "Are you buying that book for Carla? Yes, I'm buying it for her." "Compras ese libro para Carla? Si, se la compro." Here you use the direct object "la" for Carla because she's feminine and singular, and the indirect object "le" for the book, but since you can't say "le la," it becomes "se la."


for goodness sake! so I left out usted - it is still correct! Grrr


Can señora also mean miss? Who says ma'am anymore in English in this century.


"Miss" is "señorita." It may not be common in all English speaking parts of the world to use ma'am (though it's alive and well in the south), but the meaning of Spanish words doesn't change just because the culture of English-speaking countries does. Señora still means madame/ma'am.

Instead of approaching it like, "how would I advise a Spanish person to communicate this in a real-world situation in an English speaking country, taking into account English norms?" you just need to faithfully translate the sentence into English, using English grammar but not English norms.


"Ma, do you love music" isn't an acceptable answer? Personally, I believe "Ma" is a most prestigious title.


Why not Miss instead of Ma'am...?


Is Senora is a a married woman, why not Misses?


"Mam" should be an accepted spelling for "Ma'am"!


Perhaps not everywhere! In N.E. England (perhaps elsewhere too) 'Mam' is your mother.


I said "miss, do you love music" And i personally feel like it should ahve been accepted


Ma'am and Ma was offered as translation,bur ma was not accepted. Why?


Why not "really love"?


Do you really love music? = ¿(A usted) Le encanta mucho la música?


"Le encanta mucho" sounds like a pleonasm, the word mucho is already included in the definition of encantar. Think of this verb as a superlative of gustar. You could say "Me gusta mucho", but not "Me encanta mucho", you can also say "Eres muy hermosa", but not "Eres muy preciosa", since preciosa means 'very beautiful'.


I agree with OSIRIS. It's not a natural question.


Can music be used as uncountable with la?


As far as I'm aware, "music" is always uncountable.


The sentence might be unnatural but I'm more concerned by the fact that the pronunciation on here is dire. Sounds more like "ustel".


The letter 'd' at the end of a word is usually not pronounced strongly. It often sounds like a voiced 'th', like in "this".


"Ma'am, do you love THE music" accepted.


Not today 01/02/19


No today either 1/27/19


it worked for me too. 4/30/19


If you have a love for music yourself then you would very likely ask as the same.


Miss is the same as ma'am


Seora, they are usually pretty different terms. "Miss" is used to refer to younger and/or unmarried women, akin to the Spanish señorita. "Ma'am" is used towards older and/or married women, so it matches señora better.


Ma'am is an abreviation of madam (or madame). Im not sure in American English, but in England it has two meanings that have you wondering what our past was about.

1) a polite and respectful way to address a lady (that can be a miss and vice versa, but with the catch that when you look at either word's meaning there are some miss' and Mrs' that don't fit the descript of madame unless you take the other meaning).

2) a brothel queen.


Ma'am is actually a slang word in the English language. It ain't no werd! Mrs. or Misses should be acceptable.


I'm afraid you are incorrect about that. The term ma'am is not slang at all. It is the result of contracting the word 'madam' over years of spoken language and is an actual word in its own right now.

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