I couldn't agree more, Jeff. Almost everything I know of English grammar I got from studying Latin and Spanish. In English classes, I could test out of most grammar lessons by simply choosing "what sounds right". I had the advantage of college-educated parents and one grandparent, so for the most part English was spoken correctly in my childhood home. But testing out of diagnostic exams didn't mean I understood WHY what I was saying was correct and I certainly did not.
I only learned parts of speech and the like when I had to know them to construct Spanish sentences.
Actually, It was my aim when I decided to learn Spanish from English. I either repeat English grammar or even fill my gaps in it. For example, for us Ukrainians/Russians usage of articles in English is the pain. So, when I study difference between Spanish and English in articles, I learn how to use them properly in English. Have fun!
What's the difference? Can you give an example in English? Because "I also love chocolate" and "I love chocolate, too" mean the same as far as I know. If meaning isn't clear from context, Spanish has devices that resemble those in English: "Me encanta el chocolate y también la vainilla." (I love chocolate and I love vanilla, too.) "A Juana le encanta chocolate. A mi también." ("Jane loves chocolate. I do, too.") Etc. and so forth. (Disclaimer: I am not a native speaker. Anyone should feel free to correct me.)
They have shades of different meanings in English. "I too love chocolate" definitely means me in addition to other people. "I love chocolate too" depends on stress: stress on "I" means me as well; stress on "chocolate" means I love chocolate as well as other things. "Also, I love chocolate" means this in addition to whatever I had mentioned prior. "I also love chocolate" usually means chocolate as well; it's awkward to me but still possible to change the stress to "I" . "I love chocolate also" could mean either, based on context - it's effectively responding to a previous statement.
In a previous lesson, the answer was "no me gusta jugar al béisbol". I used "el béisbol" and was marked wrong. Now this one has "me encanta el fútbol". Remembering the previous lesson, I used "al fútbol", and was marked wrong. Is there any guidelines on when to use "al" and when to use "el" in this case?
It's a convention. We just have to get used to it.
I don't mean to be snarky, but you might find it useful to read the entire discussion. Your question and others are discussed at length. (I really do NOT intend to criticize you; I was happy to answer your question.)
Guillermo8330, I think it's very nice that you explain things as thoroughly as you do, like when you answered Mark fully. I tend to write too much, & I feel sure those with few English skills probably just skip a lot of my commentary, yet I try to be as clear as I can.
IMO, schools do not teach "why" things are the way they are, as much as they used to do. When to use yo o me, for example, depends upon the intransitive verb not taking an object, which results in "why" we were taught to answer the phone with "This is she," when someone asked, "Is Maria there?" -- because the subjective on one side of the verb "to be" needs an equally subjective noun or pronoun on the other side of the verb.
Same thing with the use of "It is I," which is what made me think of all that! In almost all casual speach, if someone asked, "Which one of those girls is your girlfriend," the answer would come back, "That's her, right there," when "That's SHE" is correct. I don't expect to hear it correctly, except by college English professors, these days! But, if someone can't feel comfortable saying it the stuffy-sounding-but-correct way, they can always say, "There she is, the third one on the left." ;-)
I've been teaching myself to use pronouns correctly, just for the sake of it. I did the same thing years ago with "who" and "whom".
ETA what I meant by the above post six months ago was that I have taught myself some of these finer points of English (including the subjunctive), but I am not critical of those who have not. All languages change over time and nobody appointed me language czar. (The exception that grates on my ears is the invention of big words to sound more "impressive", usually by bureaucrats.)
Good question! Consider the following:
El fútbol es mi deporte favorito. "Football is my favorite sport." In Spanish, a general noun (one means "all football" in this sentence) almost always takes an article. In English it almost never does. La vida es hermosa. "Life is beautiful."
Now let's turn to "verbs like gustar" and encantar. With these verbs, the subject, verb, object pattern is reversed and becomes object, verb, subject. Me encanta el fúbol. "Football enchants me." Te gustan los huevos. "You like eggs."
Bottom line: it's el fútbol because football is both a general noun and the subject of the sentence.
Full disclosure: I am not a native speaker. But I believe "tambien" can go before or after "me encanta", but not between "me" and "encanta". As in English, it isn't clear without context whether one is saying "I like football in addition to liking baseball" or "I like football, as does Jim."
I'm sure Spanish speakers would still understand you if you dropped the "el", but it isn't correct form. In fact--as we have been discussing in other threads--Duolingo doesn't use the direct article (el or la) as often as some of us were taught to do several decades ago. Spanish seems to be evolving (perhaps under the influence of English).
It doesn't hurt to memorize the article with the noun ("el fútbol" instead of just "fútbol"). You have to know the gender of Spanish nouns anyway because adjectives have to agree, so you might as well learn the correct article as you go.
Duolingo doesn't use the direct article (el or la) as often as some of us were taught to do several decades ago.
I have noticed a lot of people have been misguided about the usage of articles, most of the rules people say exist regarding articles are misguiding, most of the times Duolingo has it right.
May I ask, respectfully, about the source of your knowledge? Are you a native speaker? From where? What is your general age grouping? I'm asking because I'd like to know how and where Spanish has evolved. There are a lot of us who were taught differently. I have assumed Duolingo knows best about current usage, but it would really help to know how or where the changes came about over the past 30 years. Back in the day, Spanish didn't change so easily or quickly.
BTW, in American English, we generally use the verb "misled" rather than "misguided". We use "misguided" almost exclusively as an adjective. So "I was misled by his lies. That's why my opinion is misguided."
I grew up barely 100 miles from Cuba, so my teachers were all from the Caribbean until college. Even at college (in NYC), I only had one teacher who spoke Castillian. I have never, for example, studied 2nd person plural, so even allowing that textbooks were written by others, they were nonetheless directed at a Latin American audience. My only exposure to Castilian was in a Spanish Lit for Native Speakers seminar I talked my way into, where we read EL CID, DON QUIXOTE, the Generation of 98, etc. So I don't think the changes can be blamed on Ferdinand and Isabella. I do think it's possible that the influence of English has influenced small changes to Spanish over the years. New York and Southern California speakers--even those who claim to speak no English at all--tend to toss in a lot of English into their Spanish, I have noticed.
ETA after a year, I think it's highly possible I just didn't remember Spanish grammar as well as I thought I did. (I haven't studied it formally since the early 1980s.) Thank you to posters like Alezzz above, who have put me back on the right path!
Ducharse and levantarse are true, "reflexive" verbs where the speaker is doing the action (showering, getting up) to herself.
Me encanta is something we users have been calling "verbs like gustar" because we don't know what the technical term for them is.
With "verbs like gustar", something else is doing the action (pleasing, interesting, enchanting) to the speaker, but the direct object, by custom, comes before rather than after the verb. The actual subject of the sentence comes later. To wit:
A mi me gusta la maestra. Literally, "the teacher pleases me", but in English we reverse the word order and say, "I like the teacher."
Me encanta la música jazz." Literally, "Jazz music enchants me", but in English we more often say, "I love jazz music." (Note that I've left out the "a mi" this time. You only need it at the beginning of the sentence if the pronoun doesn't make it clear who is being enchanted.)
A mi amigo, le interesa la historia. "My friend is interested in history." Notice that the noun after the verb requires a direct article; this is because it is really the subject of the sentence, not the direct object.
"Verbs like gustar" are akin in meaning to the passive tense in English: "The teacher is liked by me." "Jazz is loved by me." "History is interesting to my friend." Spanish may have its own passive tense, however, so I don't mean to say they are identical in construction. Ultimately, the way these phrases are constructed in Spanish is neither more nor less arbitrary than the way phrases are constructed in English. We English speakers just have to get used to the differences.
We've been asking that question for over a year now, Da, and nobody seems to know unless there's a context to the statement. It's really the same as in English, "I also like football" may mean "in additional to basketball" or "in addition to John, who plays quarterback".
Encantar is a "verb like gustar" (and interesar). It is common usage in Spanish and has no perfect English equivalent.
In verbs like gustar, the subject goes after the verb and the person affected becomes an indirect object before the verb. So "I like men" becomes Me gustan los hombres. And "You love movies" becomes Te gustan las películas.
Notice that the verb has to agree with the subject (which, again, is placed after the verb instead of before).
There are more direct ways to say the same things in Spanish, but we have to learn this construction because it is far more common.
Yes. The point is not that "love" and encantar are perfect equivalents. Spanish speakers seem likely to use amar ("to love") and even more likely to use querer ("to want") with people. DL is trying to teach us that encantar is more emotionally attached than gustar. "Like" and "love" are the English words used to indicate the difference, because "to enchant" is archaic English.
Note: this is my personal opinion. Being a moderator doesn't put me in contact with those who write the software.
I don't think your answer is technically wrong, struckd, but it could be the answer to a lot of remarks. "Do you love to read? Yes, also I love soccer." DL is looking for something more specifically related to football.
But you can report your answer at the Response Menu at the prompt itself if you really feel it needs to be accepted.
The answer is just a few posts below this. Basically, use "I" (and yo) when I am doing the action; use "me" (and me) when the action is done to me.
What is confusing is that with verbs like gustar (and encantar) Spanish reverses the order and puts the object first, then the verb, then the subject. That's why Me encanta el futból is translated literally as "Football enchants me." Even though we more commonly say in English, "I love football."
You are welcome. I learned to distinguish between subjects and objects only when I first took foreign languages. In English classes, I just wrote whatever sounded correct and was lucky enough to have college-educated parents. Not the best system for really understanding grammar!
Probably because "m" is immediately preceded by "n", creating an accidental "consonant cluster"; and the e blends into the following e of encanta. We do the same thing in English, but we native speakers are used to it. The more we practice listening to Spanish, the more we can derive meaning from an entire phrase; then a dropped consonant now and then won't throw us. In the meantime, I understand it can be frustrating.
It isn't "incorrect" in the universal sense, but DL is trying to make sure you know that futból in Spanish refers to what many English speakers (and not just in the US) call "soccer".
Remember that the point of exercises isn't for you to show off your command of English, but to show you understand the Spanish. In Spanish, el futból = soccer; el futból americano = American football.