Translation:I want to go to the right and you to the left.
If the speaker was trying to say "I want to go to the right and [I want] you to go to the left" the subjunctive mood would be required ("Yo quiero ir a la derecha y [yo quiero] que tu vayas a la izquierda") because the speaker is expressing their desire that something happen. "You" haven't yet gone to the left, so the speaker is referring to something that hasn't actually happened. That's what triggers the subjunctive in this case.
The given phrase would be understood to mean something more along the lines of "I want to go to the right, and you want to go to the left" since the lack of the subjunctive indicates that they are two independent statements of a currently reality (the reality being that each person wants to go a certain direction).
It seems most people in the comments have misinterpreted the sentence as talking about people going separate ways, when there is no such implication in the Spanish sentence.
The sentence just states what each people wants. A common situation where you would say this is when both people are in the same car, and there is a disagreement about where to go.
As a native speaker for more years than you probably have been alive, this is a sentence that can be over analyzed and all comments have merit :-). Probably the implied "go" comes closest to making the best grammatical sense to me. However, picture two cops (policemen) chasing a crook who has eluded them at some juncture. It would not be that awkward under the situation to say "and you to the left" rather than pausing to discuss the best sentence structure :-). As such, I'm comfortable with DL's translation.
JosephHale & DavidHowle6, Sorry if this post is old (I wish dates were automatically added), & you may not be following this, but I found the discussion of using the subjunctive here interesting. I don't know Spanish subjunctives well enough to have an informed opinion, so perhaps it is used more than in English - feel free to let me know. :-)
In English, the most common use of the subjunctive is with the "if-phrase," for instances that are not true. (Note the famous song "If I were a rich Man," from Fiddler on the Roof. (Using English subjunctives, the subject noun does not agree with the verb in plurality.)
The 2nd-most common use (IMO & experience) is when someone gives a command, wish or directive, like: "The evil government suddenly decrees "all citizens be counted & pay triple taxes or be thrown* into debtor's prison."
That example definitely refers to something that hasn't happened, & strongly indicates a "must/should-factor" before the words, (plural they) "be counted" & (plural they) "be thrown."
The online site www.Dummies.com says many speakers of perfectly good English AVOID (my emphasis) the use of the subjunctive by using an infinitive or "should+verb" or "would+verb."
My sense of the lesson sentence is that the speaker wants to go one direction and wants the other person to go in the opposite direction, as someone else suggested, as if he were (example of subjunctive) initiating a search.
So, if he/she uses the infinitive, even if part of it is "understood," then I don't think the subjunctive tense is necessary, in English.
So, my question: is it different in Spanish, or do we have OPTIONS as to whether to choose subjunctive or infinitive forms? (May 19, 2019)
Not really. The Spanish sentence is about what each person wants individually, not what the speaker wants for both.
If the speaker wanted himself to go one side, while wanting the listener to go to the other side, the sentence would be: "Quiero que yo vaya a la derecha, y que tú vayas a la izquierda", and in that case we would be using the subjunctive.