"A mí me encanta tocar la guitarra." The translation as currently provided is: I love playing the guitar. While I appreciate to native English speakers that "I love playing" and "I love to play" are completely interchangeable, I don't understand why Duolingo's suggested answer is the gerund "playing", rather rather than the infinitive, as stated, "to play".
The "a mí" is optional, not required. It's only purpose is to emphasize the "me". "I love playing the guitar" (maybe implying "even if you don't). Nothing in the context of this sentence suggests that that kind of emphasis is necessary.
Use the Report button to click the option "my answer should be accepted."
Encantar works a bit backwards, like gustar. The thing you love is the subject (here "tocar la guitarra"), and the person loving becomes the indirect object (here "a mí" and "me"). Since the subject determines the conjugation, you use the 3rd-person conjugation here.
To get the conjugation right, you can imagine the sentence with the more accurate verb, "to enchant": "Playing the guitar enchants me."
To my understanding, the "a mi" is added before the reflexive verb "me encanta" to emphasize the subject. This sentence is emphasizing that I love playing the guitar (even if others don't). It carries the same meaning without the "a me," and Duolingo should accept both if you have to translate from English to Spanish
Duolingo seems to arbitrarily vascillate the whole 'a mi, a ti' and the pared-down 'me encanta , te encanta'
Some questions are marked wrong if you go from English to Spanish and either do OR don't include the extra 'a mi, a ti'.
Is there some rule or way to know whether it is or isn't actually required in Spanish? Because it, frankly, seems quite random at this point.