I've been told by all my spanish teachers in high school that the infinitive associated with drinking water is tomar, but all the other beverages get beber. Are there any other spanish speaker out there that can confirm/debunk this as I know sometimes they are used interchangeably here.
It's complicated. In Spain, to drink is beber. Period. Tomar can be to have, referring both to liquids and to solids. So, you go to a restaurant and the waiter asks: ¿Qué van a tomar? He's not only asking about drinks but also about food. In American Spanish though tomar can be a good translation for drinking.
She gives the correct conjugation for vosotros and then says that you can use the conjugation for ustedes with it, but that is perhaps in Mexico, because in Spain you cannot do that. She gives the correct conjugation for vos for beber but not correct for tomar. She seems nice, but it is easier to say "tomar" is like "to have" or "to take", because it can be used with medicine and food as well as drinks. In Mexico, "beber" is used more with alcoholic drinks.
They are both pronounced with the same sounds. https://www.thoughtco.com/pronouncing-the-spanish-b-and-v-3079534