There is no difference in pronunciation of the letter. The stress is on the last syllable for “está” (verb) while usually the stress falls on the second to last syllable. You should still be able to tell which is which since a verb is obviously used differently in a sentence than an adjective or pronoun.
Sometimes, there is an accent even though the stress is in the ordinary second to last syllable, like for “árbol”, but also beware of one syllable words with an accent which indicate a different meaning of the word than its unaccented version and which sound exactly the same.
“tú” = “you”, but “tu” = “your“
“él” = “he”, but “el” = “the”
There are more, so check at this site:
I have been taught that this kind of expression should be translated with an expression: something is/are/ lies somewhere -(there is/lies/stands XXX in/on/at... In this case : 'There are three airports in this city." Or: In this city there are..." By using the possessive 'to have' (tener) gives a faulty connotation that they somehow belongs to the city, are their property.
By using the possessive 'to have' (tener) gives a faulty connotation that they somehow belongs to the city, are their property.
Is this remark about translation or about writing/grammar?
If it's about writing, I agree with you. It does give the connotation that the airports belong to the city, which maybe is purposeful. This connotation is not only in English, but also in Spanish. Saying There are three airports in this city = Hay tres aeropuertos en esta ciudad gives another connotation (i.e. it's more neutral and only states that the airports exist in the city) in both language. Therefore, the given translation is correct, because it has the same meaning and connotations.