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  5. "Me gusta comer arroz con fri…

"Me gusta comer arroz con frijoles."

Translation:I like to eat rice with beans.

June 15, 2018



why not "el arroz….."


It's not a certain portion of rice.


But my understanding is that you have to say "Me gusta la cerveza" for "I like beer," although it's not a certain portion of beer. A commenter explained that this is because "cerveza" is the subject of the sentence. So why not "el arroz"?


John, "arroz con frijoles" is not the subject here, comer is. You don't like rice with beans (well, you probably do, but that's not what the sentence is saying), but you like eating. For that reason "arroz con frijoles" doesn't get that "subject" treatment.


You're right, "comer" is the grammatical subject of the sentence. So that makes sense, thanks. Although the sentence is indeed saying that the speaker likes rice with beans!


Clear explanation, thank you. I had the same question.


I think it's because you like to eat (me gusta comer), not that you like rice (me gusta el arroz), and you just "como arroz", not "como el arroz" (unless you're talking about a certain portion of rice), but I'm not a native speaker.


My understanding was that the subject of a "se gusta" type of construct required the definite article. No?


Note that gustar is not reflexive, you well pretty much never see "se gusta" in the wild.

The subject of a gustar sentence doesn't need to have a definite article. In general, you use the definite article for a subject when you're making a general statement, meaning you're claiming that something applies to every instance of that subject:

  • Me gusta el café. - I like coffee. Whenever there's coffee, I like it.
  • Las vacas dan leche. - Cows give milk. Whenever there's a cow, it gives milk.
  • Los peces huelen mal. - Fish smell bad.

But if you're not making a generalisation or talking about a specific subject (which would use "the" in English), then you're not going to use a definite article in the Spanish sentence:

  • Me gusta una de estas niñas. - I like one of these girls.

The other thing you have to note is that gustar has a verbal subject in the above sentence: it's not the food that you like, it's eating the food. Verbal subjects don't usually get articles.

  • Me gusta leer. - I like to read.
  • Me gusta leer libros. - I like to read books.
  • Me gusta leer el libro. - I like to read the book.


"Comer arruz con frijoles" is subject

"Gusta" verb for this subject (it)

"Me" object


Often on web version of the app the audio is being cut and here i have heard only "me gusta comer arroz" - marked wrong obviously... Weird thing is that it is often cut in such important places - like missing final "por favor" or "grazias".. like someone was doing it on purpose ;P


once again I'm totally confused by use of (or not) the definite article


Genie, we don't use the definite article in this case because we're not making a general statement about "rice and beans". (We don't say that something applies to every portion of "rice and beans".) We're making a statement about eating here.


Thank you Ryagon. Being given only one sentence to translate I find it difficult to assess the context but now get the general idea more clearly.


Why is it "Me Gusta" and not "Yo gusta"?


Just the way gustar works. Think of it as "rice pleases me" or "rice is pleasing to me"--conjugate gustar to go with rice/it gusta as the subject (not yo) and then the "me" for the object. If you like rice, it's the same way with you as the object--"te (not tú) gusta arroz." If you like something plural, you change the gustar conjugation: I like eggs--me gustan huevos (eggs please me).


Does anyone know why only 'frijoles' is correct? I have only ever heard of judías and alubias


My answer was correct but I lost a heart. Por que????


I typed exactly what it says is right and it still say wrong


Frijoles are "green beans". Unfortunately green beans isnt counted as correct


Frijoles = beans. It doesn't mean just one certain type of beans. For example my family calls red beans, frijoles. Green beans = frijoles verdes or judias verdes (according to Google Translate, Spanishdict, Linguee, Collins Dictionary, and Word Hippo). Growing up, we called it frijoles verdes when we're referring to green beans.


Why not "me gusta como" ? Is implied that I am eating ? Would it therefore be "te gusta comer" , you like to eat?


Como means "I eat". Comer is "to eat". Besides, "I like I eat rice with beans" doesn't make sense.


Love and like arethe same term having same meaning, but they always give it wrong!


What is the difference between mi and me?

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