"A mis padres no les gusta caminar en la noche."
Translation:My parents do not like walking at night.
Can someone explain the rules for "a mis". Somewhere I missed that lesson.
When you say something like "me gusta" or "te gusta", it's very obvious who it's about. "I like" or "you like", respectively, and you don't need to add the subject of the sentence.
However, when you get to "le gusta" or "les gusta", the subject isn't always easily inferred. So when you add a subject, that's where the "a mis padres" comes from.
A él le gusta = he likes. A mis padres les gusta = my parents like. A usted le gusta = you like.
Sometimes the subject was mentioned in a previous sentence, and you can leave out the "a mis padres" because it's able to be inferred due to context: "Mis padres se van de vacaciones. Les gusta viajar a México."
My translation: "My parents do not like to walk in the night" was rejected, but should be accepted as well.
Although Spanish uses the infinitive after gusta, English can use the infinitive or the -ing form. So, both .....do not like to walk.... and .....do not like walking.... should be accepted.
I keep asking this (various questions) and still hope for a definite answer: Why is "at night" (generally) not "por la noche" rather than "en la noche"? I thought "en la noche" would refer to a specific night.
"Walking at night do not pleases to my parents" is literary. There is why "a mis padres" is here.Direct object. Sorry if my English is not so good.I am not a native speaker.
I believe in this sentence "les" is an indirect object and "a mis padres" a phrase clarifying "les," not a direct object. Perhaps the confusion is that "gusta" means "is pleasing" and not "pleases"?