Translation:My wife loves listening to Spanish music.
I'm confused. I thought "to listen to music" is "escuchar música". If so, why isn't it necessary to translate this sentence as "My wife loves to listen to THE Spanish music.? DL accepts the sentence with "the" but offers the correct translation without it.
I think the reason the Spanish sentence uses "la" is because it is a definite article. If it is an indefinite amount or subject then you do not use "la." I think, but not sure and I defer to a wiser linguist. So, "musica espanola" is definite but without "espanola" it would just be "musica" not "la musica".
I found this article that helps me. https://www.realfastspanish.com/grammar/spanish-articles
Duo is wrong here. The Spanish sentence should be "A mi esposa le encanta escuchar música española." The "la" would only be required if "music" were the subject. For example "A mi esposa le encanta la música española. Once you put the verb eschchar in the sentence music is no longer the subject.
If theres a verb in the sentence why is it still le gusta and not se gusta
George, aren't you the learner who first used the term "noun-that-is-not-a-subject"? I think that is what música is here--the [noun] object of an understood preposition (to).
In that case, it seems to work to not use an article with música when it's general (escuchar música) but to use it when it's specific, i.e., specifically Spanish music (escuchar la música española).
NOTE: There are more knowledgeable people who post in these discussions who vehemently disagree with me, saying the RAE says to use the article with both general and specific nouns. I'm not an expert and can't point to the RAE (don't understand Spanish well enough to decipher it). But, my guideline works for me--I rarely use articles improperly by following it. Perhaps it will help other non-expert learners, as well.
Why does this example need the "la" musica, when an earlier example in this lesson, which is virtually identical, doesn't?
It was "A mi esposo le encanta escuchar musica"
Because the “le” could mean “to him/her/it” this sentence clarifies “to whom?” The answer... “to my wife”, thus “A mi exposa"
From my Argentinian opinion the La before music is unnecessary and even could sound better without it.
"My wife loves to listen to Spanish music" is incorrect. Can someone explain why?
I don't see anything wrong with it. Did you report that your answer should be accepted?
So it takes 20 syllables in Spanish to say the same thing in English wirh only 11 syllables? Wow! I better learn to talk very quickly (muy rápidamente).
My wife loves to listen spanish music is wrong? Why i dont get it Escuchar is to listen
I was marked wrong for saying "My wife loves to listen to Spanish music" instead of "My wife loves listening to Spanish music. Why is this wrong?
In Spanish the verb form used as a noun is the infinitive (nadar es divertido). In English, the verb form used as a noun is the gerund (swimming is fun). Therefore, the Spanish infinitive used as a noun is generally translated into English as the gerund. (nadar es divertido = swimming is fun.) However, I doubt that many people would complain if you translate it as the infinitive in English. (nadar es divertido = to swim is fun)
Thanks for the brief, clear explanation, George! In other discussions, I've tried to explain English gerunds/Spanish infinitives, but always give up and delete my comment. I'm impressed that you managed it without getting involved with present participles and gerundios!!
It said that i've got the wrong answer but actually, it was the right answer
“le” is used whenever “to him/her/it” is needed. “le encanta” means to conjure a desirable feeling to him/her/it. (In english, we use “love”.) Just like “le gusta” means “pleasing to him/her/it”.
“Se” is used with reflexive verbs (“encanta” is not reflexive) as well as other ways. I’m not an expert on “se” however. Maybe someone else can better explain this often-used and little-understood (by us gringos) little word.
Not a native speaker, so someone correct me if wrong.
This is a really great explanation of how to use "le" and how to use it in this sentence. A lot of English-speaking people probably translate "encanta" to mean "to love, to desire". But, as you said it actually means to have desire for "something." Therefore, something must be the recipient of the desire. Have a lingot on me.
https://www.spanishdict.com/translate/my%20wife%20loves%20listening%20to%20Spanish%20music SpanishDict drops the "la"
What is the rule that requires the "la" before "música "? And, why is the English translation given without "the" before "Spanish music"?
"Escuchar" means "to listen" Shouldnt this sentrnce technically be "my wife loves TO LISTEN to Spanish music"? Or is there an unspoken rule where "escuchar" becoms an "-ing" verb in certain contexts?
Kayla, the short answer to your question is "Yes." The longer one is "Yes, but the translation can be either "My wife loves listening to Spanish music," or "My wife loves to listen to Spanish music."
The reason is that, in English, a "gerund" is a verb used as a noun by adding "ing" (e.g., listening). But, there is no equivalent in Spanish--the Spanish gerundio is the name of the English "present participle" (e.g., estoy escuchando). So, the Spanish infinitive translates as either the English infinitive ("to listen") or the English gerund ("listening").
I went looking for a rule about this and found a bunch of misinformation online. The best thing I found was at https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/gerunds-in-spanish But, you have to go all the way down to the section "When NOT to use Gerundios" to really find the answer to your question.
Why is there a female voice saying 'my wife', surely it should be a male voice?
I hovered over "la" and saw that "my" was the top "hint" in the list. So, naturally, since in the assortment of words there was the word "my", I included it in my answer ("My wife loves listening to my Spanish music"). Why is it incorrect to insert the word "my" here?