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  5. "A mi esposa le encanta escuc…

"A mi esposa le encanta escuchar la música española."

Translation:My wife loves listening to Spanish music.

June 16, 2018



I'm confused. I thought "to listen to music" is "escuchar música". If so, why isn't it necessary to translate this sentence as "My wife loves to listen to THE Spanish music.? DL accepts the sentence with "the" but offers the correct translation without it.


Duo is wrong here. The Spanish sentence should be "A mi esposa le encanta escuchar música española." The "la" would only be required if "music" were the subject. For example "A mi esposa le encanta la música española. Once you put the verb eschchar in the sentence music is no longer the subject.


George, aren't you the learner who first used the term "noun-that-is-not-a-subject"? I think that is what música is here--the [noun] object of an understood preposition (to).

In that case, it seems to work to not use an article with música when it's general (escuchar música) but to use it when it's specific, i.e., specifically Spanish music (escuchar la música española).

NOTE: There are more knowledgeable people who post in these discussions who vehemently disagree with me, saying the RAE says to use the article with both general and specific nouns. I'm not an expert and can't point to the RAE (don't understand Spanish well enough to decipher it). But, my guideline works for me--I rarely use articles improperly by following it. Perhaps it will help other non-expert learners, as well.


I think the reason the Spanish sentence uses "la" is because it is a definite article. If it is an indefinite amount or subject then you do not use "la." I think, but not sure and I defer to a wiser linguist. So, "musica espanola" is definite but without "espanola" it would just be "musica" not "la musica".

I found this article that helps me. https://www.realfastspanish.com/grammar/spanish-articles


Why does this example need the "la" musica, when an earlier example in this lesson, which is virtually identical, doesn't?

It was "A mi esposo le encanta escuchar musica"


I think it is because of the adjective español. When you add español then music itself is not what my wife likes. It is specifically Spanish music. So the la is added. Just my opinion though. We need a someone with more experience to clarify.


Why is the "A" needed?


Because the “le” could mean “to him/her/it” this sentence clarifies “to whom?” The answer... “to my wife”, thus “A mi exposa"


esposa used to mean her


"My wife loves to listen to Spanish music" is incorrect. Can someone explain why?


I don't see anything wrong with it. Did you report that your answer should be accepted?


I wrote the same thing and it was correct.


From my Argentinian opinion the La before music is unnecessary and even could sound better without it.


I was marked wrong for saying "My wife loves to listen to Spanish music" instead of "My wife loves listening to Spanish music. Why is this wrong?


In Spanish the verb form used as a noun is the infinitive (nadar es divertido). In English, the verb form used as a noun is the gerund (swimming is fun). Therefore, the Spanish infinitive used as a noun is generally translated into English as the gerund. (nadar es divertido = swimming is fun.) However, I doubt that many people would complain if you translate it as the infinitive in English. (nadar es divertido = to swim is fun)


Thanks for the brief, clear explanation, George! In other discussions, I've tried to explain English gerunds/Spanish infinitives, but always give up and delete my comment. I'm impressed that you managed it without getting involved with present participles and gerundios!!


My wife loves to listen spanish music is wrong? Why i dont get it Escuchar is to listen


'To listen' needs the preposition 'to', so it's '...to listen to Spanish music'.


"Escuchar" means "to listen" Shouldnt this sentrnce technically be "my wife loves TO LISTEN to Spanish music"? Or is there an unspoken rule where "escuchar" becoms an "-ing" verb in certain contexts?


Kayla, the short answer to your question is "Yes." The longer one is "Yes, but the translation can be either "My wife loves listening to Spanish music," or "My wife loves to listen to Spanish music."

The reason is that, in English, a "gerund" is a verb used as a noun by adding "ing" (e.g., listening). But, there is no equivalent in Spanish--the Spanish gerundio is the name of the English "present participle" (e.g., estoy escuchando). So, the Spanish infinitive translates as either the English infinitive ("to listen") or the English gerund ("listening").

I went looking for a rule about this and found a bunch of misinformation online. The best thing I found was at https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/gerunds-in-spanish But, you have to go all the way down to the section "When NOT to use Gerundios" to really find the answer to your question.


When do we use “se” and when do we use “le” ?????.


“le” is used whenever “to him/her/it” is needed. “le encanta” means to conjure a desirable feeling to him/her/it. (In english, we use “love”.) Just like “le gusta” means “pleasing to him/her/it”.

“Se” is used with reflexive verbs (“encanta” is not reflexive) as well as other ways. I’m not an expert on “se” however. Maybe someone else can better explain this often-used and little-understood (by us gringos) little word.

Not a native speaker, so someone correct me if wrong.


This is a really great explanation of how to use "le" and how to use it in this sentence. A lot of English-speaking people probably translate "encanta" to mean "to love, to desire". But, as you said it actually means to have desire for "something." Therefore, something must be the recipient of the desire. Have a lingot on me.


Why is there a A before esposa?


I got a word bank exercise for this sentence... and all of the words had already been put in place for me. I literally just had to hit the Check button. It was so bizarre.


So it takes 20 syllables in Spanish to say the same thing in English wirh only 11 syllables? Wow! I better learn to talk very quickly (muy rápidamente).


That's been my gripe since beginning to learn Spanish. Other languages are just as bad. LOL!


Don't rely on translators.


Would this refer to music from Spain and/or any music in the Spanish language?


why do we have to include ¨to¨? as in, ¨I like listening music¨. without the ¨to music¨. should also be grammatical correct


I'm afraid it's grammatically incorrect. The verb 'to listen' requires the preposition 'to'.


What is the point of leaving messages? They don't give our points back or give back hearts? Who does this help?


This helps users ask questions and get answers. I learned everything I know about Spanish grammar by paying attention in these sentence discussions.


what is wrong with "my wife loves to hear spanish music"?


What is the difference between esposo esposa and marido marida please?


'Esposo/marido' = husband; 'Esposa/mujer' = wife. 'Marida' isn't a Spanish word.


I really don't understand when to use 'musica' and 'la musica' - I thought I was mistaken, but I've just taken screenshots and each has definitely been marked correct in this exercise.


what is wrong with to hear


"To hear" is a different verb - oír - and suggested sound that is passively perceived rather than actively listened to. Just like in English.


My wife loves listening Spanish music.


No, it must be listening to Spanish music.


My wife loves Spanish music. Listening is understood


It may be understood, but it's not a tranlation of the Spanish sentence.


Someone please explain when to use like or love for encantar


Encantar is always love, both here on Duolingo and in the real Spanish speaking world.


I put love for encanta and it said Like was correct. Now the response from forum is that encanta is always Love. Maybe duolingo just likes to confuse.


No, you're misremembering. You tried to use love for gusta.

Gustar - like

Encantar - love


Would "My wife loves to listen to Spanish music" also work?


Yes. The infinitive form of any verb can be translated in these kinds of sentence constructions as either "to verb" or "verbing."

[Edited because I accidentally gave a speck of misinformation and felt terrible about it.]


Why is there an "A" at the beginning of the sentence? "Mi esposa le encanta escuchar la música española" would be correct, right? And also; isn't "le" actually "la" because its "encantA"?


No, the given sentence is correct. If you take away the a it would make no sense. And no, the le is correct.

Le is an indirect object pronoun. La is a direct object pronoun. Encantar requires an indirect object to express its meaning.

Spanish music is enchantingto me wife.

The to my wife is an indirect object.


What is wrong about " loves to hear?"


Just as in English, these two concepts have different verbs with slightly different meanings. "To listen to" something (escuchar) suggests that a sound is being consciously and willingly perceived, perhaps even sought out, by the listener, while "to hear" something (oír) suggests that a sound is being passively perceived or simply noticed by the listener, usually incidentally.


Why " my wife loves to listen spanish music" not excepted.


Because it is not grammatically correct. English-speakers don't say "I like to listen music."


You need the preposition 'to' with the verb 'to listen'.


Why is there a female voice saying 'my wife', surely it should be a male voice?

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