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"Do you like running in the park?"

Translation:¿Te gusta correr en el parque?

June 16, 2018

83 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/RanjeetKaurav

Why both ti and te are used here? What's the rule to follow?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/tachpro92

From what I have learned from native speakers, the 'a ti' here is used to add emphasis to directing the question to the person. Kind of like if you are have a conversation with two other people, one of them is telling you how they hate running. You then ask the third person...."and you, do you like to go running?"(a ti te gusta ir a correr? It's not just a general question to someone, (te gusta ir a correr ). The same with 'a mi'. You might be talking with someone about a restaurant you both like and what your favorite things there are. The friend is saying how they like the beef there. Replying....'a mi me gusta el pollo' is like saying ."'Myself, i like the chicken". It just adds an emphasis to yourself.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kesslerramirez

Why would it be "gusta" instead of "gustas". Shouldn't it be conjugated for the tú form?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/redsassafras

No. Verbs match the subject. With "gustar" the subject and object are reversed from what would be common in English. The subject is the thing being liked and the object is the person.

English: I (subject) like the apple (direct object).
Spanish: Me (indirect object) gusta la manzana (subject).

Substitute "te," "le," "nos," or whatever into this sentence and "gusta" does not change. Substitute "las manzanas" for "la manzana," though, and "gusta" becomes "gustan."

When "gustar" is followed by an infinitive verb as in the example given by Duolingo ("te gusta correr"), "gustar" is conjugated to the third person singular. Hence, "gusta."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/FlowerEagle

I don't know if this is correct, because I am remembering this from many, many years ago. The way I think about "me gusta" is that it translates literally as "it pleases me" rather than "I like."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ozymandias615884

Thank you kindly, redsassafras. Can you point to any other verbs that follow the same subject-verb relationship i.e. 'encantar', 'odiar' etc. ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/alezzzix

Odiar does not follow that same pattern.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ozymandias615884

'A ti te odia correr en el parque' is bad Spanish then? Se un buen hombre y cuantame como expresar desden por los pasatiempos/actividades, amblamente.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Linda_from_NJ

So, Ozymandias615884, "se" without an accent is the command form of the irregular verb "ser?"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Findurmojo

I got my answer! In Spanish they do not use the gerund form but rather the infinitive. In English, we can say "I like running" or "I like to run", but in Spanish it can only be "I like to run".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PhilipOrourke

Why is correr used here instead of corres


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
Mod
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  • 2715

Exact same reason we say "He likes to run" and not "He likes runs."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SeaBee_01

But its “do you like running”, not “do you like to run” or “do you likes to run”.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2715

In English, we can say "You like running" or "You like to run". In Spanish, they just say "te gusta correr", which is literally "to run pleases you". Spanish uses the gerund/participle differently than English does.

But yes, in both Spanish and in English you cannot have two conjugated verbs back-to-back in the same non-compound phrase. The first verb is conjugated, the second is in the infinitive (sometimes the bare infinitive in English).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SeaBee_01

Te is a conjugated verb? I don’t know what you are referring to when you say there can only be one conjugation.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
Mod
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  • 2715

No, "te" is an object pronoun.

We say "He likes to run". We do not say "He likes runs".

This specific sentence is a bad example because "gustar" works differently than "to like" because it means "to please". Let's use "querer" instead.

María quiere correr.
not
María quiere corre.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jasper2000

Why "A ti te" , why not "tú"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Syno-chan

"You" can be both translate into 'tu' and 'a ti".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Linda_from_NJ

When "you" is translated as "tú," it is a translation of the subject of a sentence. In English, this use of the pronoun "you" is considered to be in nominative (noun) case. When "tu" has no accent, it is translated as "your," which is called a "personal pronoun" by English grammar.

When "you' is translated as "ti," it is a Spanish indirect object pronoun. When "you" is translated as "te," it is a Spanish prepositional pronoun. Unlike English–which uses the same English pronoun case (called "objective case") as direct objects, indirect objects, and objects of prepositions–Spanish has different pronouns for each of these situations.

In English, the word "you" stays the same in nominative and objective case. In possessive case, it is either the singular "your" or the plural "yours." The only other case change is reflexive case, which is "yourself."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Julie143204

A ti te gusta correr en el parque?

Hi Linda, every time I think I have this figured out, I find myself even more confused.

I thought the "A ti" was the prepositional phrase and that "te" was the indirect object. Do I have this backwards? Or did I misunderstand what you wrote? Does it change anything, in the Spanish, when the sentence is used as a question as opposed to simply making a statement? Thanks!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2715

The "a tí" is optional and just adds a bit of emphasis. It's literally "To you, does running in the park please you?" Or just "¿Te gusta correr en el parque?" -- Does running in the park please you?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Julie143204

Thanks Rae.F, I think I understand this part, but I am not sure if I am correctly identifying the pronoun parts of speech.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2715

Nouns and pronouns are always nouns and pronouns. Nominative case means the subject form, as opposed to a direct object (accusative) or indirect object (dative).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KennethGel1

Got this correct but confused! This was Te gusta correr.... but on prior question which was "Don't you like running.... answer was A usted no le gusta. I understand the Te vs usted but why does one start with "A?"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2715

The "a [pronoun]" part is optional and adds emphasis. You can think of it as "and as for you...".

¿[a ti] te gusta correr? [to you] is running pleasing to you? Do you like running?
¿[a usted] le gusta correr? [to you] is running pleasing to you? Do you like running?

If you're naming names, however, the "a [person]" is required, since that's the part where you specify.

A Miguel le gusta correr. To Miguel, running is pleasing to him. Miguel likes running.
A mis amigos les gusta correr. To my friends, running is pleasing to them. My friends like running.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KennethGel1

Thank you!! Helps a lot (mucho)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Annamay470647

In English, infinitives, gerunds, and participles are not used as verbs. They are verbals that can be used as subjects, direct objects, and objects of prepositions. Objects of prepositions are a little tricky. Example : His grades went from failing to passing. The subject is grades, the verb is went, prepositions from and to, and verbals are failing and passing


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jannie548460

The english sentence is not: And you, do you like running in the park. So how should we understand that we should translate it that way??


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Linda_from_NJ

Jannie548460, a more literal translation of the Spanish sentence is "And you, is running in the park pleasing to you?" Because it is briefer and is more colloquial English, the passive English construction of "is pleasing" gets interpreted as "do you like," with the Spanish direct object (correr en el parque) being interpreted as the subject of the English sentence instead of as its object.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/44767mt

I was taught that questions usually started with "A te gusta". Gusta is not conjugated and the following verb is also in it's basic form so it cannot be corriendo but correr. This question brings up so many points of grammar in just seven words that it is headspinning ! 3-8-19


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2715

That's not quite right. The plain form is "te gusta" and the emphatic form is "a tí te gusta". Gustar is conjugated to the thing or things that please(s) you. What follows is the infinitive because "running/to run" is what pleases you, or in English, you like to run, not you like you run. It's more evident in 3rd person: He likes to run, not He likes runs.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/bbp2cn

When is 'gustar' used and when 'encantar' ? Thnx


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2715

Gustar ~ "to like" (literally "to please")
Me gusta correr ~ I like to run (literally "Running pleases me.")

Encantar ~ "to love" (literally "to enchant")
Me encanta correr ~ I love to run (literally "Running enchants me.")

https://studyspanish.com/grammar/lessons/gustar


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/NancyLaney

when do you use en el parque vs al parque to mean in the


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
Mod
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  • 2715

"Al parque" (= a el parque) is only used when there is motion toward and it is the destination.

¿Te gusta correr al parque? = Do you like running to the park?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PepperMyCat

Wouldnt it be te gustas correr en el parque instead of te gusta?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jim8161
Mod
  • 464

That's not how «gustar» works.

Here's an article that will explain: https://spanish411.net/Spanish-Using-Gustar.asp

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