"Do you like running in the park?"
Translation:¿Te gusta correr en el parque?
From what I have learned from native speakers, the 'a ti' here is used to add emphasis to directing the question to the person. Kind of like if you are have a conversation with two other people, one of them is telling you how they hate running. You then ask the third person...."and you, do you like to go running?"(a ti te gusta ir a correr? It's not just a general question to someone, (te gusta ir a correr ). The same with 'a mi'. You might be talking with someone about a restaurant you both like and what your favorite things there are. The friend is saying how they like the beef there. Replying....'a mi me gusta el pollo' is like saying ."'Myself, i like the chicken". It just adds an emphasis to yourself.
No. Verbs match the subject. With "gustar" the subject and object are reversed from what would be common in English. The subject is the thing being liked and the object is the person.
English: I (subject) like the apple (direct object).
Spanish: Me (indirect object) gusta la manzana (subject).
Substitute "te," "le," "nos," or whatever into this sentence and "gusta" does not change. Substitute "las manzanas" for "la manzana," though, and "gusta" becomes "gustan."
When "gustar" is followed by an infinitive verb as in the example given by Duolingo ("te gusta correr"), "gustar" is conjugated to the third person singular. Hence, "gusta."
The problem with the inuit method is that ability basically goes away at puberty. Not instantly, but gradually. It´s easier to learn a language in secondary school than in your 30s, and certainly easier than when you are more than 40. There are always the few exceptions, but for most of us the rule intuiting part diminishes severely. This is not to say you can´t learn a language later in life, it´s just that the most efficient way is no longer submersion and intuition. We use grammar and other tools to help us. Some schools even teach by memorizing dialogues. I was not thrilled with my Wolof lessons, but the teacher assured me the locals knew the other half of the dialogues and he was right. The dozen or so scripts also provided a good framework for adding more language via submersion.
In English, we can say "You like running" or "You like to run". In Spanish, they just say "te gusta correr", which is literally "to run pleases you". Spanish uses the gerund/participle differently than English does.
But yes, in both Spanish and in English you cannot have two conjugated verbs back-to-back in the same non-compound phrase. The first verb is conjugated, the second is in the infinitive (sometimes the bare infinitive in English).
No, "te" is an object pronoun.
We say "He likes to run". We do not say "He likes runs".
This specific sentence is a bad example because "gustar" works differently than "to like" because it means "to please". Let's use "querer" instead.
María quiere correr.
María quiere corre.
When "you" is translated as "tú," it is a translation of the subject of a sentence. In English, this use of the pronoun "you" is considered to be in nominative (noun) case. When "tu" has no accent, it is translated as "your," which is called a "personal pronoun" by English grammar.
When "you' is translated as "ti," it is a Spanish indirect object pronoun. When "you" is translated as "te," it is a Spanish prepositional pronoun. Unlike English–which uses the same English pronoun case (called "objective case") as direct objects, indirect objects, and objects of prepositions–Spanish has different pronouns for each of these situations.
In English, the word "you" stays the same in nominative and objective case. In possessive case, it is either the singular "your" or the plural "yours." The only other case change is reflexive case, which is "yourself."
A ti te gusta correr en el parque?
Hi Linda, every time I think I have this figured out, I find myself even more confused.
I thought the "A ti" was the prepositional phrase and that "te" was the indirect object. Do I have this backwards? Or did I misunderstand what you wrote? Does it change anything, in the Spanish, when the sentence is used as a question as opposed to simply making a statement? Thanks!
People need to downvote this, and/or a knowledgeable native speaker needs to explain why "al parque" is correct. I don't think it is, but the program won't let me move on unless I put this in as the answer. I'm thinking that maybe we have to put it in as the right answer and then report that "there is something wrong with the correct answer." If enough people do this, perhaps the program won't keep asking for us to respond incorrectly.
Jannie548460, a more literal translation of the Spanish sentence is "And you, is running in the park pleasing to you?" Because it is briefer and is more colloquial English, the passive English construction of "is pleasing" gets interpreted as "do you like," with the Spanish direct object (correr en el parque) being interpreted as the subject of the English sentence instead of as its object.
Can you find out what corriendo does mean please.. (as duolingo clearly agrees over it having a different meaning but again does not explain). My references shaw corriendo as the gerund of correr to run. I.e., "running" I have correr as "run." All adding to my confusion.
Many people confuse the Spanish gerundio with the English gerund. What they have in common is that the endings of each translate as "-ing" in English or "ando, endo, or iendo" in Spanish.
However, gerundios are only used as part of a Spanish compound verb (for example, estoy corriendo/I am running) or as a Spanish adjective (for example, el hombre corriendo/the running man).
English gerunds, on the other hand can be used as noun substitutes (for example, as the subject or object of a sentence, as in "Running is my favorite sport" or "I like running." Spanish gerundios can never be translated this way.
The Spanish verb form that can be used in this way is the infinitive. For example, "Correr es mi desporte favorito" (To run is my favorite sport) and "Me gusta correr" (I like to run.) When translating from Spanish to English, the English infinitive form (to + stem verb)and the English gerund are good translations of Spanish infinitives. When English -ing verb forms are used as parts of a compound verb or as an adjective, translate them with Spanish gerundios.
The "a [pronoun]" is optional and provides emphasis or clarity. If it's "a [specific reference]" it's mandatory.
¿Te gusta correr en el parque? literally means "Does running in the park please you?"
¿A ti te gusta correr en el parque? is literally "To you, does running in the park please you?"
Conversationally, the first is a straightforward question and the second is more like "And what about you?"
In the third person, including the "a [pronoun]" can disambiguate between "usted/él/ella" or "ustedes/ellos/ellas".
Anything other than a pronoun is mandatory because that is where you specify.
¿A María le gusta correr en el parque? "Does Maria like running in the park?"
¿A los hombres les gusta correr en el parque? "Do the men like running in the park?"
I understand the reflexive verb usage, and I know that Spanish requires an infinitive afterwards, but i dont understand why the English is consistently presented with the -ing gerund when an infinitive is just as valid, and probably slightly more formal/preferable. "I like to run" is a closer translation.
There is nothing reflexive about this construction. More literally, it says "Does running in the park please you?"
That said, if you typed "Do you like to run in the park?" and it marked you wrong, double-check for typos or other errors before you flag it and report "My answer should be accepted."