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"Do you eat rice?"

Translation:Manges-tu du riz ?

March 26, 2013



Avez-vous mangez du riz ?


"Have you eat some rice?" or "Have you eat rice?" No, that does not work with both verbs conjugated. This is the present tense, so "avez" is not used.
"Mangez-vous du riz?" which is "Do you eat rice?" or "Are you eating rice?" ("some rice" is optional and also correct.)

"Avez-vous mange du riz?" which sounds just like what you wrote would be the past tense "Have you eaten some rice?" or "Have you eaten rice?" In French it is called the "passé compose". This is a compound tense using two verbs in which the helping or auxiliary verb "have" is conjugated and the past participle "mangé" is added.




Why not "manges-tu le riz?" ?


"manges-tu LE riz ?" = do you eat THE rice?

There are 6 ways to translate "Do you eat rice", across the 3 options you have to ask a question, from sustained French to familiar, oral French:

  • Mangez-vous du riz ?
  • Manges-tu du riz ?
  • Est-ce que vous mangez du riz ?
  • Est-ce que tu manges du riz ?
  • Vous mangez du riz ?
  • Tu manges du riz ?


Why can't you say Tu manges de le riz?


de+le becomes du. "de le" is not appropriate to use.


Fundamentaly, I believe that it is purely aesthetical: "de le riz" sounds "ugly"...


Possibly. Other languages choose aesthetics over logic as well. Try learning Czech if you really want to suffer -- I have never seen so many arbitrary exceptions.


I don't know about Czech, but try the beautiful Portuguese, if you want to suffer with exceptions.


But earlier I thought we learned that saying "du" implied something specific, so "I like wine" was "J'aime le vin". No?


"J'aime le vin" can mean either "I like wine" or "I like the wine". Good question, though, because "Je bois la bière" means I drink the beer", and "Je bois de la bière" means either "I drink beer" or "I drink some beer". Very confusing.

But it's getting late and my brain is tired. Maybe a French person will come along and be able to explain this. Just when I think I understand this des/les/le/de la/du thing something else comes along and I realize I still have something more to learn about it.

I had this discussion recently:



OK once again: please try to translate what is meant rather than what is written

1)with action verbs, the partitive "du" (de+le) or "de la" are used with uncountable nouns to mean "some, a portion of, an undefined quantity of":

  • je mange du pain; tu bois de la bière; il respire de l'air; elle prend du temps...

2)with appreciation verbs, the partitive is not used, neither in singular, nor in plural and with any kind of objects, countable or not. Appreciation verbs naturally introduce generalities with definite article le, la, les

  • j'aime le pain; tu préfères la bière; il déteste les roses; elle apprécie le soleil...


There are 2 key points in your question:

  • word order: it can change a lot from one language to the other; for example: French adjectives are placed after the noun and it is the opposite in English (+ exceptions in both languages); French adverbs are placed after the verb they modify and it is the opposite in English:

-- I always wear my blue coat = je porte toujours mon manteau bleu

  • construction of questions: In English, questions are relatively easy to construct, with auxiliaries or verb "do" and inversions of Verb-Subject. In French, there are nearly always 3 possibilities to ask a question (formal/standard/relaxed).

"Do you eat rice?"=

  • Manges-tu du riz ?: inversion Verb-Subject = formal
  • Est-ce que tu manges du riz ?: use of interrogative phrase "est-ce que" for all questions prompting a yes-no answer + the question itself in the form of a statement (no inversion V-S) = standard
  • Tu manges du riz ?: simple statement with a question mark at the end, and voice raising on the last syllable. = relaxed/in speech.


I have a question. But first I would like to apologize ahead of time to all native french speakers for my ignorance. How do I know when to speak backwards? I'm not implying in any way; that if it's not English it's backwards because that's silly. However what is correct in one language sounds backwards to another. This is where I've always struggled. For example I translated: Do you eat rice as Vous mangez du riz. Duolingo accepted that translation but then said another way is: Mangez vous du riz. Why is vous behind mangez and not in front? And I see that quite often a word I would put early in a sentence properly translated comes last. Is there a specific rule that I don't know that tells me why la tomate est rouge and not rouge tomate? Please help.


"manges-tu LE riz?" can also mean :Do you eat rice?" as a rule and so should be acceptable.given the sentence to translate


No, "manges-tu LE riz" = "do you eat THE rice", specific rice (the one on your plate...)


vous mangez tu riz?


What you typed is a statement (the question mark is used incorrectly). From what I have learned, you would be understood if you say it in a question tone, but the correct fashion to ask a question is by putting the verb before the "vous".

So, for example, if want to say "Do you drink wine" I would say

Buvez-vous du vin? or Bois-tu du vin?

Also, it is du riz, not tu riz... but I believe that is a spelling mistake.

Hope that helped.


Why is the "du" necessary here? Why can't we simply say "Manges-tu riz?"


Remember that it is very rare that a French noun does not have an article of some kind: definite "le, la, les", contracted definite "du (=de+le) or au (=à+le), indefinite un, une, des.

"eat rice" is "manger du riz" = "some" rice = an undefined quantity of a non-countable thing.


so, if i want to ask someone, if he does eat meat - in the meaning, that he will be not against to eat meat (his is not a vegetarian), not the portion of meat, just meat in the overall sence, should I ask then " manges-tu DE LA viande " ?


Yes, that's correct.


Now i understood, thanks


why is vous faire mange du riz not correct?


the way we ask questions is not similar to the English way:

"do you eat?" uses verb "do" then the personal pronoun, then the action verb.

For French constructions, please read the 2nd post on this thread.


I wrote, "Est-ce que vous mangez le riz?" Why is this incorrect?


your proposal would be "do you eat THE rice".

what the sentence means in English is "do you eat some (an undefined quantity of) rice?"

in French, that partitive case is translated with "de + definite article".

(when the noun is masculine, "de+le" becomes "du" - when the noun is feminine, "de la" remains "de la" - unless the nouns starts with a vowel or a non-aspired H, then "du" and "de la" become "de l' ... ")


I wrote 'tu es manges du riz' - can you please explain why is it wrong?


that would be something like saying 'you are eat rice?' tu es is the verb etre, to be.


Yep, I get it now :) thanks


i object to the way this queston is pharsed!


When would you use "manges-tu du riz?" versus "tu manges du riz?"


"manges-tu du riz ?" is a formal question.

"tu manges du riz ?" is an informal question (just a ? at the end and voice raising on the last word).

"tu manges du riz" is a statement.


I wrote "tu manges de riz?" What's the difference between de and du?


French nouns need a modifier: article or possessive/demonstrative or interrogative or exclamative adjective.

But "de" is none of those, it is only a proposition. So, you have to add an article.

"Du" is a contracted article made of preposition "de" + article "le".


So, I'm kind of having a hard time understanding when to use "du" and "de" I wrote, "mangez vous de riz" would it have been correct if I said "de le" instead? Or am I messing up this whole sentence?


If you read the whole thread, I am quite certain you will understand better what a partitive article is.


"Vous mangez du riz?" Accepted


Why isn't it "fair tu manges riz"? French is hard...


French is not a translation of English.

English use "do" as an auxiliary to form questions, French does not use "faire" in interrogative sentences.

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