I do not think that in the American english translation you would need to add an "a" even at a social gathering. I could be wrong though, but I do think that if I were proficient in spanish and was translating to english I would translate it as "does he want a tea." Also when tea, coffee or whatever is offered to an individual, as opposed to a group, I am not sure that more than one cup is ever implied. Therefore it does not seem that the offer would need to be clarified by the word "a".
You are not wrong. "Does he want a tea?" is incredibly awkward in American English.
Not in Texas. Youll catch me ( and others) saying this multiple times a day. And even if it's not common, its definitely not grammatically incorrect.
At the end of the day, you have to remember that Duolingo is trying to teach us Spanish, not English. As a result, sometimes they have to tweak the english translation, so that you can understand the grammar and semantics of the Spanish you're learning.
Its not that strange actually! It just depends on the context! People in Maine use it all the time. If I was making tea and asked someone if they wanted any, I might say "do you want some tea" because im implying that I have one big container of tea and am asking if you would like "some" or a portion of the mass, but if I were to have, lets say, cans of Arizona tea, for example, i might hold it up, point at it and ask "hey man do you want a tea?" And this would make sense without question. Just like, "do you want a pepsi" or "do you want a banana." This being said however, I think that if I had a giant 5 gallon jug of Gatorade, and then asked someone "hey do you want a cup of Gatorade" this would make more sense than "hey do you want a Gatorade" in this situation, because of the individuality of a cup or bottle, vs the massive amount of liquid in a 5 gallon jug. You could either want "some" vs "a or an" when you say "I want a bottle of Gatorade" you're implying you want the thing as a whole. you would say "a cup, a bottle etc. But when there is mass that you only want some of you say "some Gatorade, some coffee", etc. This being said however I still think you could get away with saying "do you want a Gatorade" in the context of there being a 5 gallon jug of the stuff. Although it might sound just a bit off, but not many people would really notice, and if they did they probably wouldn't try to correct you.
I'm from the south of England and we do say 'Do you want a tea'. It's short for 'Do you want a cup of tea?'
The "a" is strange, but not impossible. It could refer to a dried variety of tea. You could also say "a tea" in regards to a drink, sort like how some people say "a water".
Some people say "a water" but they're in the minority. It's natural to say "Does he want tea?" or "does he want some tea?"
I thought about this. If I'm at a bar, trying to flag down a bartender, I'll say, "Can I get a water?" But if he asks what i want to drink, I'll reply "Water, please.". I've also had retrieved experiences with a large group the waitress brings out a tray with glasses of water. She will ask, "Who wanted a water? And who got tea?"So I find "a water" used with some regularity, but not "a tea." I guess it's one of the unwritten rules of English.
So this is a first. Duolingo marked me wrong because I didn't include the question mark at the end. I'm pretty sure "Does he want a tea" can't be mistaken for a statement, question mark or not.
My main difficulty is understanding the spoken Spanish. Aside from the fact that many syllables are elided, the emphasis differs from what I would expect. E.g , with the "un té," the empahsis is on the "un." With "a tea," I would put the emphasis on "tea ". Emphasising the "a" would be stressing the idea that they only wanted one seving.
Isn't the "a" in the sentence wrong or is it supposed to be there in Spanish?
Though in this particular sentence, the zero article (the absence of an article), definite article, and indefinite article all have the same end result, they don't mean precisely the same thing.
The zero article ("I want tea") produces a group noun in English, so that sentence means "I want something that qualifies as tea." The definite article ("I want the tea") means "I want some specific tea that's defined by context" (or "I want the tea option," if you consider it an elision). The indefinite article ("I want a tea") means EITHER "I want a cup of tea" (making the sentence an elision) or "I want some tea and am not particular as to the specific one".
All three options are correct English. Again, the end result is the same in this particular sentence, but notice how much of a difference it can make in others:
• zero article: "I own yellow houses at the end of the lane." = There are yellow houses at the end of the lane, and I own them.
• indefinite article: "I own a yellow house at the end of the lane." = There is one or more yellow houses at the end of the lane, and I own one.
• definite article: "I own the yellow house at the end of the lane." = There is only one yellow house at the end of the lane, and I own it.
Spanish has these three types of article, too. The usage isn't entirely identical, but there's enough overlap that those sorts of nuances in applied meaning still apply.
Ohio here. We always say "a tea." What would you like to drink? I'll have a tea, thanks. I also hear and say, Could i please have a sweet (or an unsweetened) tea? When making tea for myself recently, i asked my visitor, do you want a tea? Meaning their own tea, not some of my tea (single bags).
New Englanders stick the "a" in there. But most people don't. If I was in charge I'd say "want tea" is best answer, "want a tea" should be acceptable...
Is "té" a count noun in Spanish?
I get that in English, beer and water have become conventionally understood as count nouns--I understand that "a water" means "a /glass of/ water." Has the same phenomenon occurred with tea in Spanish?
Um so this is making mad because I'm am knew so when thay want you to put a word that they did not but it makes me MAD!!!!!!!!!!!!
My southen self just said he want a tea with an upward inflection thinking that would be good enough. These sophisticated individuals need there dose of does I guess .-.
The word "quiero" is "I want" (first person)
The word "quiere" is "he wants", "she wants", or "it wants" (third person) OR, if you're speaking to someone in a context where formality or politeness is warranted, it's "you want" (second person, formal).
what's the difference between 'he wants a tea' and 'does he want a tea'? when translated into espanol?
the Dialect is so bad on the voice it sounds like A and not EL I had worked it out but I got it wrong so I could complain you need to amend the voice !
It often seems from her pronunciation as if the woman is either drunk or mentally challenged.
The inclusion of the word "un" in the Spanish question suggests to me that "he" is being invited to sit down to a social gathering to drink tea while having a pleasant conversation. Without "un", it seems that the query would be merely offering some fellow a glass of iced tea or a cup of hot tea.
Actually, the only difference between the sentences with and without un is about the quantity of tea that he would want. With un, we are referring to one glass of tea "Does he want one glass of tea?", whereas without un, the quantity is indefinite (it can be one glass, or a whole kettle) Does he want some tea?
Totally agree with this explanation. The inclusion of un fits particularly well in a bar situation, where he is ordering un té (i.e. one glass/cup of tea), but he could be making a larger order too, say tres tés y dos cafés (three cups of tea and two cups of coffee).
james, you are appling thinking in English to Spanish. And that does not work.
This is the MEANING of the Spanish sentence said in English: Does he want a tea? That is a word for word meaning.
This is the best TRANSLATION: He wants tea?
That is how English speaking people normally talk. Duolingo's translation above is not perfectly correct. It is off. Duolingo is not perfect.
The translation I gave will not ding you out as it is correct.
I agree with Eugene here, this is an abnormal expression in English. It marked me as incorrect for "does he want tea?", annoying..
Yes. In English, if you were to say "does he want a tea?" you would sound like a maniac.