"¿Él quiere un té?"

Translation:Does he want a tea?

4 months ago

32 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/NTWqBX0y

I do not think that in the American english translation you would need to add an "a" even at a social gathering. I could be wrong though, but I do think that if I were proficient in spanish and was translating to english I would translate it as "does he want a tea." Also when tea, coffee or whatever is offered to an individual, as opposed to a group, I am not sure that more than one cup is ever implied. Therefore it does not seem that the offer would need to be clarified by the word "a".

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Karen324451

You are not wrong. "Does he want a tea?" is incredibly awkward in American English.

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Tanvi0524

I agree. You do not need an "a" before tea because tea is not singular.

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Tsukunea
Tsukunea
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The word tea should never be directly preceded by an a. Tea is never singular; one can have a tea leaf, but never a tea

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Carradee
Carradee
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You can have "a cup of tea", thus you actually can have "a tea". It just elides "cup of".

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/souadelkadi
souadelkadi
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Wrong translation.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HethaUK

I'm from the south of England and we do say 'Do you want a tea'. It's short for 'Do you want a cup of tea?'

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Curt491794

The "a" is strange, but not impossible. It could refer to a dried variety of tea. You could also say "a tea" in regards to a drink, sort like how some people say "a water".

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Potatopeel1

Some people say "a water" but they're in the minority. It's natural to say "Does he want tea?" or "does he want some tea?"

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MatthewF723825

People say, 'do you want a coffee?' Does he want a tea makes sense imo

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/QuincyWarr

Sir, can I have a tea?

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jamesatemple

The inclusion of the word "un" in the Spanish question suggests to me that "he" is being invited to sit down to a social gathering to drink tea while having a pleasant conversation. Without "un", it seems that the query would be merely offering some fellow a glass of iced tea or a cup of hot tea.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AmineHadji1
AmineHadji1
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Actually, the only difference between the sentences with and without un is about the quantity of tea that he would want. With un, we are referring to one glass of tea "Does he want one glass of tea?", whereas without un, the quantity is indefinite (it can be one glass, or a whole kettle) Does he want some tea?

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FerEtayoRguez
FerEtayoRguez
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Totally agree with this explanation. The inclusion of un fits particularly well in a bar situation, where he is ordering un té (i.e. one glass/cup of tea), but he could be making a larger order too, say tres tés y dos cafés (three cups of tea and two cups of coffee).

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EugeneTiffany

james, you are appling thinking in English to Spanish. And that does not work.

This is the MEANING of the Spanish sentence said in English: Does he want a tea? That is a word for word meaning.

This is the best TRANSLATION: He wants tea?

That is how English speaking people normally talk. Duolingo's translation above is not perfectly correct. It is off. Duolingo is not perfect.

The translation I gave will not ding you out as it is correct.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MarcusPrun1

I agree with Eugene here, this is an abnormal expression in English. It marked me as incorrect for "does he want tea?", annoying..

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dan845469

Yes. In English, if you were to say "does he want a tea?" you would sound like a maniac.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Roy685800
Roy685800
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We would also say 'does he want some tea?'

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Abereon26
Abereon26
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Weird translation!!!!

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rabidace03

Regardless of however right the spanish form is, you never say 'does he want a tea'. Duo Lingo should accept the right way to say it in English

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Cronan3

Wrong translation

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Chris385181

You wouldn't say a tea. Only tea.

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Isaac137377

"A tea" Makes no sense

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TheOneTheYoshi

I feel like you should just be saying "té" and not "un té". I don't hear people say "Does he want a tea?" very often

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DJdkI9R8

I heard "un tay-ay".

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sally386728
Sally386728
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I heard pretty much the same, but only in the male voice version. The female voice version was fine.

Whoever marked you down a point wasn't listening.

2 days ago

https://www.duolingo.com/NeilTurkin

quiere el una taza de te?

( no spanish keyboard so no accents for El and tE )

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Shifana4824

Quiere means wants then why there is want instead of wants?

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/QuincyWarr

You don't need an "a" in English. At least I got the question right :)

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Fye899765

Isn't the "a" in the sentence wrong or is it supposed to be there in Spanish?

1 week ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Carradee
Carradee
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Though in this particular sentence, the zero article (the absence of an article), definite article, and indefinite article all have the same end result, they don't mean precisely the same thing.

The zero article ("I want tea") produces a group noun in English, so that sentence means "I want something that qualifies as tea." The definite article ("I want the tea") means "I want some specific tea that's defined by context" (or "I want the tea option," if you consider it an elision). The indefinite article ("I want a tea") means EITHER "I want a cup of tea" (making the sentence an elision) or "I want some tea and am not particular as to the specific one".

All three options are correct English. Again, the end result is the same in this particular sentence, but notice how much of a difference it can make in others:

• zero article: "I own yellow houses at the end of the lane." = There are yellow houses at the end of the lane, and I own them. • indefinite article: "I own a yellow house at the end of the lane." = There is one or more yellow house at the end of the lane, and I own one. • definite article: "I own the yellow house at the end of the lane." = There is only one yellow house at the end of the lane, and I own it.

Spanish has these three types of article, too. The usage isn't entirely identical, but there's enough overlap that those sorts of nuances in applied meaning still apply.

1 week ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JuneHiza

Microphone didn't pick up the last two words of the question.

3 months ago
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