"I like beer a lot."
Translation:Me gusta mucho la cerveza.
I have the same question. I am very confused because Spanish seems to throw “the” arbitrarily. In this case do I like this specific beer (the beer), or do I like beer in general? Or maybe there is no difference in Spanish and it is always “the” for both cases. Of course it could be just a Duo Lingo translation thing too. Please comment :)
I believe it's because in Spanish "beer" is the subject of the sentence and therefore requires a definite article.
My understanding is that if you want to say "I like xxxxx a lot", you have to use the preposition el or la in front of xxxx. If you want to say "I like a lot of xxxx" then you don't have to use the el or la. That's kind of what I have figured out so far. The first is a general preference. The second seems to be referring to a quantity. I might be all wrong but that's how I'm understanding it right now.
My question is mucho vs mucha. I said "Me gusta mucha la cerveza". Me gusta .... gusta is gustA because beer is feminine. Doesn't the mucho/mucha refer to me (a female)?
Taking your previous example related when to use (or not) "el" and "la", we can present the following: "I like beer a lot" is translated to "Me gusta mucho la cerveza" ("mucho" is aligned with the verb "me gusta") and "I like a lot of beer" would be translated to "Me gusta mucha cerveza" ("mucha" aligned with "cerveza")... Hope that this example can help somehow.
but if mucho is aligned with me gusta... wouldn't it be mucha if I am female?
It's mucho because it's modifying a verb (gustar) and verbs aren't gendered, regardless of who is performing the action. Gusta isn't a feminine word; it's just the third-person present indicative form of gustar.
So is "mucho" basically describing how much you like something...and "mucha" is more of a quantity of a noun?
Me gusta would be gusta no matter if you're talking about a masculine noun. Me gusta el pollo.
If I understand correctly, it's because of the structure of gustar translating as "is pleasing". So "me gusta cerveza" means "beer (it) is pleasing to me", and the he/she/it/you (usted) form is of gustar is gusta. Is this correct, or am I completely out to lunch?
I think this translation was based off of Brett Kavanaugh's congressional testimonies.
¡Duo es tan tópico!
You don't use "yo" because it's a subject pronoun and you (the speaker) are not the subject of the sentence; "la cerzeva" is. In this sentence, you are represented in the indirect object pronoun "me", because the subject, "la cerzeva", is the one performing the action to you. Gustar is regularly translated as "to like" but it's more like "to be pleasing to", which is why it requires this unusual sentence construction.
This an interesting aspect of Spanish (and it took me a long time to get it). In English, there is a difference between the following two statements: 1. I like beer = I like beer in general 2. I like the beer = I like this specific beer In Spanish there is no difference. Moreover, Spanish required "the" in front of beer. So they would never say the first and always the second. This is strange to an English speaker, but is the case in Spanish. Therefore, whereas in English one would say "I like yogurt", Spanish would say "I like the yogurt". You will see this in almost all contexts.
To clarify this a bit. Randy's point is correct because grammatically the sentence [in English] is lirerally saying "beer pleases me a lot". (We translate the meaning into proper English of course). But because we are making a general statement about beer Spanish requires the definite article él/la/los/las - in English we do the opposite and write what seems to be odd English to someone learning it, dropping the article: Lions are dangerous, dogs are loyal, whatever. If we eat lots of cheese the article is not required in Spanish as we are not making a general statement about cheese, it is the object of the sentence so "Como mucho queso" or "Quiero mucha cerveza" or "Tengo muchos perros" are all correct. Hope this has clarified the matter.
Can someone please answer my question: Is it ALWAYS "Me gusta..."? Would you ever say, "Me gusto mucho la cerveza."?
Yes, it is always "me gusta" or "me gustan" depending if the object of your likeness is singular or plural:
- Me gusta la música. / I like music.
- Te gustan las almendras. / You like almonds.
- A ella le gustan los mariscos. / She likes seafood.
- Nos gustan los bebés. / We like babies.
- Les gusta bromear. / They like to joke around.
- Tú me gustas mucho. / I like you very much.
Added: Notice the last example when talking directly to the person that you like, that the used form is "(tú) me gustas" (but only when using "tú").
When learning Spanish, it's best to memorize a few idioms and one is me gusta, "I like," because you will use it a lot. It will take time to get a feel for how the verb works in the examples given by DevNull.PT, such as A ella le gustan los mariscos. There are a list of important verbs that work the same way but getting started with me gusta is a good way to go. An introductory grammar will have a section that you could use to get some further examples. If you conjugate the verb it will mean different things, as the examples by DevNull.PT indicate, such as Tú me gustas, "I like you," which is what someone would say on a date. As you can see, it's important to understand the basic distinction between me gusta frijoles, "I like beans" and Tú me gustas, "I like you."
Why isn't it "mucha la cerveza"? Cervesa is feminine, correct? So mucho coud be mucha??
They tend to use “the” a lot, as though they are being specific. However in this case the translation to English is not speaking about any specific beer. Duo marks it wrong. In speaking the sentence I would not use “la”.
"I like beer" translates to Me gusta la cerveza. In Australia we might say "He likes a beer" which implies (with sarcasm) he drinks a lot of beer. Does "Le gusta una cerveza." with the indefinite article work the same way in Spanish?