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  5. "Yo vine a este parque anoche…

"Yo vine a este parque anoche."

Translation:I came to this park last night.

June 19, 2018



That's a bit creepy, until you remember that's perfectly normal for an owl.


Ahh ... it's all coming back to me now. I really shouldn't have had that last drink ...


Why is the accent left off of viné sometimes?


Nathanafi, vine as preterite of venir should never have an accent mark.


Venir is an irregular verb. So it has its issues, ha. If it was a regular -ir verb, it -should- be vení when doing first person preterite. But no, it wants to be vine instead.


Generally, verbs that change their stem in the preterite tense don't get accents for the yo and él/ella forms.

  • venir - yo vine, él vino
  • querer - yo quise, él quiso
  • ver - yo vi, él vio
  • ser - yo fui, él fue


When do we put the diacritical mark on the final vowel of a word in preterite or past tense? Example: Vine ----- viné Dijo ------ dijó come ----- comé, etc. an explanation would be welcome. Thanks.


For regular verbs you place an accent on the final 'e' or 'i' (for the yo forms) and the final 'o' (for él/ella forms) in the preterite tense:

  • hablar - yo hablé, él habló
  • comer - yo comí, él comió
  • dormir - yo dormí, él durmió

But there are a couple of verbs that change their verb stem when conjugated in preterite tense. Those usually don't receive that accent.

  • ser/ir - yo fui, él fue
  • venir - yo vine, él vino
  • poner - yo puse, él puso
  • saber - yo supe, él supo
  • querer - yo quise, él quiso
  • decir - yo dije, él dijo


Shouldn't "I came to this park yesterday night." also be marked correct?


I'm guessing English is not your native language? While technically correct, it's not colloquial (at least in my corner of the English-speaking world).


I'm from the UK and I think it's perfectly normal to say that

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