Or if ´Padre´ already translates to ´father´and so papá is seen to correlate to ´dad´ and ´papí´ to daddy etc.
When talking to about my father I may use ´HE, ´father´, ´daddy dearest´ and ´that silly old coot´and they all refer to the SAME person but to suggest they should be translated the same is nonsensical.
If you say "Dad and I ARE..." you must say "...eatING" (present continuous).
If you want to say "...eat" you can not say "Dad and I ARE..." but you must say "Dad and I..." (present simple).
"Dad and i are always eat together" is wrong, because "eat" is present simple, but "are" is for present continuous.
Am I wrong?
In Spanish the verb endings are specific to the subject and tense. These verbs often follow patterns depending on the ending (er, ar, ir) of the infinitive form: Comer (to eat)
(Yo) Como = I eat
(Tú) Comes = You eat
(Nosotros) Comemos = We eat
I've found this site helpful for what verb ending you need (called conjugations). Warning, there is a lot of information there so don't be overwhelmed. Spanish verbs often follow patterns. Most 'er' ending verbs will share the same endings in their other forms.
@valerie, while the grammar is not entirely correct, you've used a common construction in English. I don't think that's why Duo dinged you. There was no possessive ("my") in the original Spanish sentence. If you had translated it to "Dad and me always eat together" I suspect it would have been accepted by Duo.
And beyond that, “dad” isn’t children’s language either. That’s a stock standard way for native English speaking Americans to refer to their fathers at any age. If they were mapping padre-> father and papá -> daddy then the argument that this holds an expectation of a child’s name for father would ring more true.