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  5. "Está oscuro en la noche."

"Está oscuro en la noche."

Translation:It's dark at night.

June 19, 2018



What a revelation, dark at night, who would have thought?


This reminds me of the joke/ riddle

What has 4 legs a tail and it barks?

(When someone answers) a DOG

(Punchline) ... you've heard it before


Haha never heard it before and I enjoyed it. Thanks for sharing.


If you live in a big city, you don't see darkness even at night


what if you look up


You see grayish sky, not really black, even when it's clear. That's called light pollution.


Even in New York City you still see black


Cuz NY city is diverse? No?


What city is this? New York, Paris and Los Angeles are all dark at night. Dark enough to see darkness. :)


You can't see real darkness until you go to the countryside at night.


Unless you live in Alaska and it's summer time


Now i'm really puzzled. It is ALWAYS dark at night so why está why not es.


Look at it like this: it is dark at night, but it gets brighter during the day. It's not permanent so estar would be used


nothing is really permanent (ask a Buddhist if you dont believe me xD); so from this point of view, estar would be never used...

I was also sure that "Es oscuro en la noche" is right and would be happy if someone can bring some light into my confusion :)


the staticness/dynamicness is a matter of relativity not absoluteness. also estar is used for not permanent stuff. estar was the original to be verb, but ser came around to imply staticness, derived from the verb to stand. the closest translation i can think of in english would be "habitual be" but even that's not a direct translation as we see here.

in this case, night & day are seen as fleeting more than they are seen as habitual. like we usually have to plan on restricted sunlight or restricted darkness which is why estar gets used, because it's not assumed that you've adapted your entire life around the darkness of night & the brightness of day.


You're puzzled because it's ad odd sentence, it feels very much like a fragment of a larger conversation.

Es oscuro en la noche: night is dark.

Está oscuro en la noche: it gets dark at night.

Estar oscuro & hacer oscuro are more or less synonymous.


In the "está" example, does this also explain why "oscuro" rather than "oscura", because the adjective is modifying "It", not "night (la noche)"? Thank you!


Yep. If the grammatical subject is "it" (which is genderless), the adjectives default to masculine.

If "la noche" becomes the subject then the adjectives would follow suit.

Por ejemplo: La noche es oscura y llena de terrores.


Not in the polar regions


Exactly.. why not es instead of está because it's more than a temporary condition do to its normally dark at night


I am still puzzled as to why "esta" instead of "hace". I am very confused about weather and when to use "esta" or "hace".


Esta translate (most of the time) to 'it is' or 'is' . I think this would be better translated to 'it is dark in the night time'( I think this would be marked wrong to dramatic of a change from the original sentence) while hace(Congregation of a 'hacer' to make)would translate to 'it is making darkness in the night time'. 'it is making' and 'it is' are very different .


Someone gave a link above that explains it all


Tim145941 is not thinking about what is idiomatic Spanish, which is to use "hace" for the weather. Tim's sentence sounds like Spanglish to me.


Why does this sentence use está oscuro but a different one uses es oscuro? The other sentence talked about winters being dark.


I was wrong Duo gave me this answer : "It is dark during the night".

Why not in the night?

at night: De noche, por la noche, en la noche . In the night: during durante la noche


After all these years of studying, I am wondering why this is not 'oscura'? Spanisgdict.com reveals: A dark night>una noche oscura, the night is dark>la noche es oscura


"oscuro" here isn't modifying "noche"


Same question here. Why not "Está oscura en la noche."? More comments welcomed.


Because IT is dark (when doesn't matter)


Now I'm REALLY confused. I just finished posting the following in another lesson: I am confused. We previously learned that "hace" means "make" or "do". Now it means "it is"? What happened to "es"? That means "it is" too and we've been using it for many dozens of lessons. Why can't I use "es" in all of these examples? When do you choose "hace" over "es"?

Now "está" means "it is"? I've always understood that "está" means "is" not "it is".

Someone please help me out here. I'm thoroughly frustrated and ready to throw in the towel.


Don't throw in the towel Janet. It is confusing for most of us. I think the answer to your question about when to use hace vs. es or esta depends on whether your verb is referring to a noun or an adjective. You use hace when referring to a noun and es or esta when referring to an adjective. Calor or Sol are nouns, so you use hace. Nublado or Oscuro are adjectives, so you use es or esta. An interesting twist to all this is that frio can be a noun or an adjective, so you can use hace, es or esta, though hace is the most commonly used.


The fast version of this sentence has the last part of "esta" run into "oscuro". It makes it very difficult to hear


why not ES? I thought esta was for temporary conditions and es for permanent


I have the same question! I looked through all these comments and can't find an answer. One would think that "es" would be right because how often is it bright at night? Maybe Spanish takes into consideration arctic summers and their bright nights? :D


Quote from @BrittanyCl502204:

Look at it like this: it is dark at night, but it gets brighter during the day. It's not permanent so estar would be used


Isn't it supposed to be "por la noche". My teacher said there's nothing like "en la noche", "en la mañana", "en la tarde"


Per the Real Academia Española:

Para introducir los complementos de tiempo relativos a las partes del día, en el español general se emplean normalmente las preposiciones por o en, esta última de uso frecuente en gran parte de América, aunque inusual en España


Previous question "No hace sol aqui". So, hace for the adjective sunny, yet está for the adjective dark. Why?

And, yeah, I don't get why 'oscura' is not used given it modifies 'la noche'...


It is dark at night -> Está oscuro en la noche. The night is dark -> La noche es oscura. In the second sentence "dark" describes "the night", but in the first one it describes "it". Same in Spanish, with the only difference that you don't need the literal pronoun "it"/"ello".




Estar is used: 1.to express location or position; 2.With an adjective to indicate a state or condition of the subject which may be non-inherent, accidental, relatively temporary, or variable. In this case I think "variable" is the key. Its different from dark in a cave underground. We have added a qualifier "at night" which suggests the location might change its lighting in daytime. I think.

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