"My stomach ache has passed."

Translation:Se me ha pasado el dolor de estómago.

June 20, 2018

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Why are there two reflexive pronouns? Inwould only say "Se ha pasado el dolor de estómago" or "Me he pasado el dolor de estómago"....can someone give me an explanation?


I believe the se is the reflexive and the me is an indirect object pronoun. There are many Spanish sentences that use an IOP where English would use a possessive.

I hope that helps.


El dolor de mi estomago se ha paso?


It wouldn't be too farfetched to say that in Spanish, linking personal pronouns with body parts is actively disliked; definite articles are preferred by far. The "me" in the sentence above makes it clear that the speaker is talking about his stomach, and nobody else's. That is why one hears "Me duele la cabeza" and never "Mi cabeza duele!" It might be a little less strict in the third person, but you'll hear, "Ella levantó el brazo" far more often than "Ella levantó su brazo."

For the same concept expressed more elaborately, check http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/4100/pronouns-vs.-articles-for-body-parts

  • 1951

Can't it also be: Mi dolor de estómago ha pasado.


The convoluted word bank wording left me confused so I typed in a more straightforward solution which was accepted. Not sure what the Duolingo mish-mash was supposed to teach


If you're speaking of the Spanish, it is indeed correct and common.

Se me ha pasado el dolor de estómago

They are trying to show you the use of se. It's used for the passive and impersonal constructions.


So there should be a tip on this question with reflexive and ind obj aling with the poder haber ir sentence structure. I assume this se me odder because it is capitalized but it would be easy to get wrong with order or omit the se.

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