"¿Ninguno de ustedes quiere comprar ropa?"

Translation:None of you wants to buy clothes?

June 20, 2018

This discussion is locked.


What's wrong with "Don't any of you want to buy clothes?" Reported July 16


This is what I said, and it's still being marked wrong, in favour of "Not one of you wants to buy clothes", as a statement, not a question. Wow! There are problems with this one! (I also reported this, Aug 4/18)


Second attempt, because now I'm trying different things to see what works and what doesn't. I typed "Doesn't any of you want to buy clothes?" and was marked wrong, and given "Do none of you want to buy clothes" - again, as a statement and not a question, so I marked it wrong, because, if they're going to provide correct responses, they should include the question mark.


" Doesn't any" should be accepted, because that is grammatical.


No. Any is singular or plural depending on context. "Any of you" sounds plural to me, unless it is specifically "any one of you".


"Dont any of you want to buy clothes?" accepted Feb 21


Actually, my answer "Doesn't . . . " was corrected to "Don't," which is, in fact, incorrect. "None" is singular -- it means "Not one". Same with "ninguno"


"None" can be singular or plural, it's up to your taste. Have a look at the Usage Notes and the example sentences here.


What is wrong is subject-verb agreement: 'any' is singular in English and 'do' is plural. It would be correct to ask, Doesn't any of you want to buy clothes? I know, it sounds weird. But it's true. Most of us native speakers of English get this wrong every day.


It's impossible for "most" native speakers to get something wrong all the time - if they do the grammar books are wrong. None and any can be either singular or plural, and the verb agreement in this sentence is actually with you, not with any or none, anyway. Try leaving the any out and use you all instead (same basic meaning) see how good doesn't you want to buy clothes sounds. And please, do cite your grammar book reference - I need to write the publishers of that book a strongly worded letter


Klgregonis, there is no "any" in Duo's prompt that I can see. The verb agreement is certainly with ninguno, not de ustedes, which is only a prepositional phrase clarifying ninguno. Duo's translation appears to be correct. And, in any case, it's Ninguno . . . quiere . . . . in Spanish.


Ningúno can translate as either none of you or any of you. Do none of you want to buy clothes and don't any of you want to buy clothes both translate to this sentence in Spanish.


I think it's actually "Does none [not one] of you want to buy clothes?" Or, "Doesn't any [one] of you want to buy clothes?" Duo accepts these translations.


My version “Doesn’t anyone of you want to buy clothes?” (copy - paste) is not accepted. I see here accepted versions of my answer without “any” or without “one”.


I got that answer correct


Why was it ustedes quiere and not ustedes quieren? According to conjugation table you always ustedes quieren.


That was my question too. I can only assume that, in this case, "quiere" is referring to "ninguno" (none/any) being the subject, rather than "ustedes". Can someone confirm?


Yes. "No one" (none) is the subject. "de ustedes" is a prepositional phrase, and cannot be a subject.


Correct English grammar is "none of you want". The noun phrase "none of you" is plural, just like "some of you" or "all of you".


Sorry. None (and any) are singular in formal English. I know it sounds weird. But it's true. Google it.


I don't know what is meant by "formal English". The word "formal" can have different meanings.

However, "standard American English" is the English taught in U.S. schools and colleges. It is the English used by journalists, newscasters, and other writers, including writers of business letters. It is the English taught in U.S. ESL classes, and what one needs to know to pass the TOEFL test.

"None", when used as a pronoun, can be singular or plural "None of my children has/ have blue eyes." “Is there any more orange juice?” “I’m sorry, there IS none left.”

"Any" can be an adjective (determiner). As such, it has no effect on the number of the verb. (It is neither singular, nor plural).

When "any" is a pronoun, it can be singular or plural. "Is there any of that lemon cake left?" "Well, we do sell them, but we haven't got any [plural] at the moment."


"Do you have any money?" "Ask any person you meet." "Any person who comes in today is eligible." "The first thing to do is to remove any things that attract the skunk." https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/none https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/none


This is a confusion of the rules regarding mass nouns and pluralities. Mass nouns definitely take singular, as in "None of the water flows", whereas if we were talking about a plurality of distinct, individual water sources it would be proper (albeit somewhat poetic sounding) to say "None of the waters flow". However, "None of the waters flows" would sound bananas, which is what you are basically proposing here.

When speaking of groups of people, generally we CAN use "is" and "are" interchangeably, given certain structural circumstances (here we would need to switch the verb "want" to the present participle, as in "None of you is/are wanting to buy clothes?"), and still be "grammatically sound", but a) you'll often sound like you aren't a native speaker, b) persons are seen as individual subjects and are therefore always plural in groups (ex: "People want" works, but "people wants" doesn't), and c) insisting that some archaic article of grammar should outweigh current common usage is always going to give you a headache (though I think here we have an example of a confusion of the subject of the sentence).


In all other exercises when ustedes is used they allow "you all," until now. Also another error was going out to dinner is okay but going out to breakfast has to be going out for breakfast. Several glitches in Duolingo that needs to be fixed.


This is a question. We teach ESL students that the proper question form is Don't any of you want or Do none of you want. Not None of you want to buy clothes? While we CAN ask questions that way, it's informal and/or expresses surprise or dismay.


It's a proper way to form questions, so-called "declarative questions", and they are not particularly informal. It's their purpose to express surprise.


Do any of you want to buy clothes? All the conversations I've read in this thread are about English, and splitting hairs over the meaning of any and none etc, in English. This is one of those sentences that tricks a lot of people, and has generated a lot of debate, but we're all talking about English, not Spanish.

This is a common scenario on Duo, and I think is one of Duo's greatest failings. We're here to learn a foreign language, not debate the finer points of English in its many forms and dialects.


I use the reverse Spanish to English tree, and find the nitpicky discussions about grammar and vocabulary very helpful in learning Spanish. I'm sure there are people who are native Spanish speakers who are doing the same thing here. So the discussions are useful. You'll not find many hispanohablantes weighing in here about the grammaticality of the Spanish sentence because they aren't sure of their English.


Thanks for reminding us, Klgregonis. I used to complain as Seattle_scott does, until I read some comments from people like you and speakers of both Spanish and other languages. Now, I hope our somewhat-arcane discussions help, and welcome them as reminders of what English has been and is becoming.


Accepted: Do none of you want to buy clothes?


That's unfortunate, sguthrie (even though I agree with most of your posts in this discussion). I believe the correct English question in that word order would be "Does none of you want to buy clothes?"


Want not wants


Simon, either verb form is okay.


There are many mix-ups in this one. Subject: (a noun) 'Ninguno'= any, anyone + negative verb; no one, 'none' + positive verb and in either case plural; and then a question, which requires use of auxiliary 'do', the 3:rd person= 'does' > "Doesn't anyone of you want" or "Does none of you want"
And there is a certain difference between these two. The idea is clear in Spanish, but the translation has a fault; it is not a question, and should be corrected.


Yes, it's a question. This is a common way of asking questions, just not the only one or the one we typically teach ESL students, since the use of do is so hard to grasp for most students.. However, the more correct form with does wasn't accepted when I did this sentence, hence my comment. I would translate it as "don't any of you want" , with the verb agreeing with you instead of any. Probably a dialect thing.


I know this is not a literal translation, but this seems to be the better english: Don't any of you want to buy clothing


Do none of you want to buy clothes?


On a different point: I wrote "Ninguna de ustedes quiere compra ropa?" - admittedly carelessly and unintentionally. Duo didn't like it, but would that actually be right if I was addressing a group of females?


I came here with the exact same question, having also unintentionally made the same typo. But it seems that ninguna should be acceptable for a group of women. Should Duo not have rejected that, or am I missing something?


Ninguno sounded like ninguna to me.


Why is the woman so hard to understand???? She runs all her words together and I could have sworn I heard her say "ninguna" after repeating the sentence like 5 times....so annoying


Why is this wrong: Do any of you want to buy clothes?


Ninguno de = none of ...

Ninguno implies exclusion.

You used "any" which would be algún/alguno and would imply inclusion. It is a different sentence.


The article here suggests disbelief that nobody wants to buy a dress.

I find we get too caught up trying to make sense of the English; we need to be more careful understanding the Spanish speaker.

How important is English understanding to the Spanish speaker?


Which "article"? The Spanish sentence has no articles.


does no one of you want to buy clothes ? wasn't accepted.. I think it should be. right ?


No, it should not be accepted.

No one = nadie

We need to translate what was ACTUALLY said, and NOT what the speaker COULD, or MIGHT, have been said.


Also given translation is not in the question form.


Yes. In both English and Spanish, we can ask a question by making an indicative statement, rather than using an interrogative sentence.

Both languages do that through using rising intonation, and using a question mark in print.

That said, I do believe that DL should use the interrogative sentence form (reversed subject-object) more often, and use the indicative (statement) form less.


This isn't correct. It's none of you want to buy clothes. Note not wants.


Both "want" and "wants" are good in that sentence. "None" can be singular or plural.


I wrote: "Does no one of you want to buy clothes?" Uuups


Yes, "uuups." Not very good English. Typically (except for emphasis), "no one" is changed to "none."

But for emphasis one might say "Does NO ONE of you....?" (Emphasizing each of the two words.)


Oh my goodness! You all get so caught up!!! Just drop the s from wantS and the sentence is correct in English . "None of you want to buy clothes?". Although having three daughters it's not a phrase I've ever used!


"None" can be singular or plural in English. Both "None of you wants" and "None of you want" are fine.


Using wants insteqd of want here feels weird. Any one want to explain?


"None" can be used with both singular and plural verbs. So both "None of you wants" and "None of you want" are okay.


"Ninguno" contains "uno" which is one. It could could therefore be translated as "not one" of you wants to buy clothes, which then sounds correct. Perhaps this is the way it is perceived in Spanish?


Yes, that's what it means.


The English selection is grammatically incorrect. It gives the choice as 'wants' as in, "'None of you wants to buy any clothes?'" when it should be, "'None of you want to buy any clothes?''


Stephanie, like discussed several times in this thread already, both "want" and "wants" are fine here. The pronoun "none", can be singular or plural, depending on the use and the intention of the speaker.


If ustedes is formal plural, why quiere and not quieren?


Because Spanish views ninguno, which is singular, as the subject.


Why is it quiere and not quieren ??


Because ninguno is singular.


Surely that should be "quieren" since more than one person is being addressed.


No, ninguno is treated as 3rd person singular in Spanish. "Ninguno de ustedes" is still 3rd person singular. So quiere is the correct conjugation.


I don’t understand what you mean, would it be possible to explain this in simple terms?


Ninguno is treated as a singular 3rd person in conjugations in Spanish. I don't know how to put it any simpler. Sorry.


I said "Do any of you all want to buy clothes?" and it was marked wrong. Well, is it wrong? I feel like that's right.


ustedes quieren not quire surely what am I doing wrong here


The subject is not ustedes but ninguno de ustedes and ninguno is singular (de ustedes is a qualifier of the ninguno) Because the subject is singular the verb needs to match it as singular.


my understanding is that ninguno de ustedes can translate neither of you, i wrote "neither of you wants to buy clothing" but it was marked wrong. Is there a problem i'm missing?


To mean "neither", the sentence context would need to be: not either of two things or people

There is nothing to identify that only two people are involved in this sentence so the more generic "none" is appropriate.


Nor is there anything contextual to indicate there are more that two people. Given the lack of specificity shouldn't the database include that option?


I would say no, because the generic term "none of you" can be used for any number >1, including the situation where it is exactly two people, but 'neither' can only be used when you know there is exactly two.


Got it, thanks


Why is quiere used with ustedes in this sentance, rather than quieren?


This is commented on elsewhere in this Sentence Discussion, which is well worth a read.

In brief: ​ > «ninguno» is singular


Should it not be "none of you want to buy clothes?"


That is an alternative accepted translation that is in the database.


why is it ustedes quiere instead of ustedes quieren?


See Tolunayo's comment, above.


thanks - "Because ninguno is singular."


Clothes=clothing, but clothing not accepted.


'clothing' is used in some of the alternative accepted translations in the database. You should always show your full answer if yours was marked as incorrect.

If you believe you have typed a sentence that is in Duo's Accepted Translations for this exercise get a screenshot to share with the user forum.

This will help us spot whether there is a problem with your answer that you did not notice, or if there is a problem with Duolingo that we need to report to them

[GUIDE] How To create, upload, share a screenshot (using postimages.org) https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/49065336


none of you want to buy clothes


Cambridge dictionary says none of should be treated as singular. However, people do use it in plural in informal speaking.


In formal styles, we use none of with a singular verb when it is the subject. However, in informal speaking, people often use plural verbs:

None of that surprises me.

Indeed, none of his novels is well shaped or well written.

None of the products have been tested on animals and all the bottles are recyclable. (informal)


I agree with SnarlsBarky comments, so I have the same question... what's wrong;;;


As @AsadButt1 answered to @SnarlsBarky:

"Dont any of you want to buy clothes?" accepted Feb 21

So, it has been an accepted translation for at least a year. You either had an unnoticed error or you hit a Duo glitch.

Only a screenshot will help confirm either way and allow a bug report to be filed if it is a Duolingo problem.

[GUIDE] How To create, upload, share a screenshot (using postimages.org) https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/49065336


Did none of you want to buy clothes marked wrong, have reported as don’t know why it’s wrong?


Wrong tense. Did is past tense, of lresentge Dr.


what's wrong with "None of you all wants to buy clothes?"


Because standard English is "none of you." "You all" (actually "y'all") is a southern regional expression.


"None of you wants to buy clothes?" doesn't really make sense.


Why not? Someone's just surprised that there's an unwillingness to purchase textile goodies among those otherwise more shopping-friendly people.


Thanks, Ryagon! I was looking for a reason to smile between my tears over my fellow native English speakers' confusion! (And debating whether to tell you this is another situation where we'll have to agree to at least partly disagree--although you can ask "Does none of you want to buy . . . ?", "none" in Duo's construction calls for the singular "wants"!) Anyway, it is time to chuckle!


None of you "want" to buy clothes...ditch the "s" on "wants"


Alexandra, both versions are fine.


Please read the thread before posting a comment that contradicts other comments. Or at least provide backup reasoning for your caveat. This is a gray (grey) area and some of us (most of us) will use either one depending on the context of the conversation.


as is this is more a statement than a question

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