"La fiesta es divertida."
Translation:The party is fun.
remind me again why the answer cannot be "La fiesta es divertido". Is it because party is feminine so the fun needs to be feminine?
You are correct. The gender of the adjective matches the gender of the noun. Use divertido if the noun is masculine and use divertida if the noun is feminine.
this is a great page. I couldn't work out divertida/divertido .Now i've got it. Thank you
parties = 2 or more parties
party's = party is
One party. The party is fun. Or. The party's fun.
Two parties. The parties are fun.
You made a mistake.
party's ≠ party is
In addition to being possessive, "party's" can be the contraction for "party is." It is a little informal, but not a mistake.
I need to ask you a few questions in order to ensure that I do not accidently underestimate your opinion. If you prefer not to answer my questions, then simply let me know that I should consider you to be disinterested in discussing these issues. No worries. No problem. Just thought I would ask.
I will begin with question one (Q1).
Q1: I have read your reply to me. If you were not inventing a new category of English language in terms of "a little informal", then can you clarify what you meant by "a little informal" ?
Q2: When you composed your reply to me, was your intention to discuss standard english or some other kind of English?
Q3: Do you know what an English idiom is? Or an English idiomatic expression?
Q4: I believe that the readers of this forum are, generally speaking, most interested in understanding the usage of the word, party's, in the context of standard English. If you don't share my belief, then which context (of the word, party's) do you believe the readers of this forum are most interested in knowing your opinion about instead of Standard English?
Sad that you get these dislikes when you just want to discuss things. People can be really pissy at times, wow.
Actually party's = party is. It is a contraction. The apostrophe is used to indicate the missing letter.
"The Party's Over" is a song written by country music singer Willie Nelson during the mid-1950's. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gmQuIpM4h6A
Don Meredith https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CtGxusvUT3k
Sorry but I like this version too. Nat King Cole "The Party's Over" (Live December 17, 1957) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=x8BGHt18JTI
I was replying to the comment "the parties fun". It can also be a used to show possession but in this example it is in reference to "The party is fun."
Besides the first disagreement you spoke to me about in your reply to me, you made another English mistake. This was your second English mistake.
Now I am going to explain your second English mistake: In your last reply to me, you were trying to portray idiomatic English as if it were standard English usage.
In order to be helpful to your readers when you are composing your posts about the topic of English, remember that your readers are going to assume that you are discussing standard English unless you explicitly inform your readers that you are discussing idiomatic usage.
regarding standard English:
party's ≠ party is
Here is an example of standard English:
The minister’s speech cleared the air over his party’s stand on the controversial legislation.
regarding an English idiomatic expression:
We shall now discuss an idiomatic expression. Here it is... "(the) party's over"
Be advised that the idiomatic expression shown above is not listed in most (or all) standard English dictionaries. I invite my readers to compare your favorite dictionary of standard English with one of the online idioms dictionaries such as the idioms dictionary at the web site below:
I do not describe the featured Spanish sentence of this Duolingo exercise as a "feminine sentence". Your question isn't really a question about feminine sentences. Okay? I believe your question is really about gender matching. Let's talk about gender matching.
One kind of gender matching that you will want to pay attention to is called Adjective Agreement.
In Spanish, adjectives must agree with the noun (or pronoun) they describe in gender and in number.
Why does this one use ser and not estar ? Since it’s a specific party, it makes less sense to me to consider divertida an essential quality of it, unless we are speaking of a recurring event that is always fun. Without context, I would at least have expected está to be accepted. Or does another rule apply here ?
Don't post questions or comments here in this thread if they belong in the reciprocal thread. Remember to look in the reciprocal thread first.
If the party really is funny, then I am making the same interpretation that you are. But I think this Duolingo exercise depends on the premise that the party is not a funny party. It's a reasonable assumption, in my opinion, that the party is not a funny party because most parties are not funny.
I have three questions for you:
1 Do you understand "funny" ?
funny = amusing
Los chistes de tu hermano son muy graciosos.
― Your brother's jokes are very amusing.
― Your brother's jokes are very funny.
Jokes are not always funny. Why not?
Jokes are not always funny because some jokes fail to make people laugh.
2 Have you attended a few partys during your life?
― ¿Has asistido a algunas fiestas durante tu vida?
3 Did you laugh?
The infinitive form is divertir.
The past participle is divertido (or divertida).
divertir = to amuse, to entertain, to distract, to make laugh
― It is fun.
― He is funny.
Only one of the two translations is correct in each particular context.
― It is fun.
― She is funny.
"Divertido" solo se puede traducir por "funny" si nos hace reír.
― "Divertido" can only be translated as "funny" if it makes us laugh.
You got to remember that this is more "basic" Spanish, so it has to use more rudimentary English.