when "pauvre" is placed before a noun, it means "poor, unfortunate"; when it is placed after a noun, it means "poor, moneyless, broke".
Why is no article needed in this case? Is this meant to be a sentence fragment?
I would like to know the answer to this as well. I second this question.
I believe that the main reason for this is the fact that this sentence is basically an exclamation; "the speaker is exclaiming his or her own feelings of shock, disbelief, amazement, etc."
If you listen hard enough, you can hear the "s" at the end of "pauvres" because "enfants" starts with a vowel. This link might help you a bit with French liaisons http://french.about.com/library/pronunciation/bl-liaisons.htm
I've listened to it very carefully five times now with headphones on, and there is no 's' in the version I got.
Aha! The full-speed recording clearly has the "s", but the slow recording does not. The slow recording isn't just slow -- it reads one word at a time, which eliminates any interaction between the words. That's not good.
'pauvres' is plural (you can hear the 's' at the end), the adjective is plural therefore the noun is also
As a few people have mentioned, in my opinion "poor kids" should be an acceptable translation. If not for any other reason than the consistency: there are many other questions that accept "kids" for "enfants."
"Poor kids" needs to be accepted -- kids is an acceptable translation of enfants in the other Duolingo modules (and in English).
I reported this. Just in case anyone else gets annoyed that "poor kids" isn't accepted. It has been reported.
Because kids and children are not equivalent? They are in different registers. Kid = gosse, gamin, môme. Child = enfant. There is a car insurance advert in the UK which uses an elderly American actor advising two young twenty-somethings about insurance. He says something like "You kids should try X". It worked, because he was in an advisory "older and wiser" role. But could he have addressed them as "You children"? It would not have worked.
"You guys" is another common usage. Does it mean a group of men? A mixed group? A group of women? I think that it has become so well established now that it can mean any or all of these. But it is not equivalent to "You men" etc, or even (British) to "You blokes" or the more eldeerly "you chaps" (both definitely meaning men). I suppose you could say "you girls" for a group of women, though for some that is politically incorrect. And it does not make it equivalent to "you women".
Though I do remember a film clip in which a marine sergeant shouts to a barrack room of male recruits, "OK, ladies, grab your gear!. We're outta here!" I guess context is everything...
I wouldn't translate "Pauvres enfants" with "Poor girls". If one refers either to a group exclusively composed by boys or a mixed group of boys and girls "Pauvres enfants" is correct. But if the group is composed exclusively by girls the correct translation would be "Pauvres filles".
Pauvres enfants = poor children = unfortunate/////////////Enfants pauvres = poor children = no money
One thing I noticed when learning French is that when doing general practice and there isn't a catalogue to classify things, it's very hard to tell what they are saying. What you thought absolutely makes sense.
How can you possibly tell from the audio that it is in the plural? Grrrrrr
I know French language is full of exceptions... But: "Pauvre" is not among BANGS verbs (beauty/Age/Number/GoodOrBad/Size" which in lessons I learned that they appear before their noun... So why is it used before noun?
I have the same question, someone mentioned above that it may be placed at the front and back, but why's that? Is this an adjective that's both BANGS and not BANGS?
could this refer to being poor as in having no money and poor as in poor pitiful me
I think I found an easy way to remember the definition of "pauvre."
When it comes before the noun, it means the unfortunate kind of poor (e.g. "Those poor children had to wait in the car for their parents."). And, when it comes after the noun, it's in regards to money and being broke (e.g. "Those children's parents are so poor, they can't even afford to give their children decent clothes.").
So, in English, whenever we say someone's the unlucky/unfortunate poor, we put it before the noun, rarely after the noun. The moneyless version can come before, but it comes after more often ("The poor child" vs. "The child is poor"). So it's kind of like how we use the word "poor" in English which makes it easier to remember for me.
When it says poor children, does it mean that they are literally poor, (broke, homeless), or does it mean that someone is taking pity for them (Awh, poor children, their toys broke!)
I can't tell if it's the microphone but this word sounds the same as pepper in French
in french dose poor have the same double meaning as in English? Like feeling sorry for them or not being wealthy?
You could say "gosses"-- a little slangy, maybe, but 'kids' can be, too. But if Duo is accepting 'kids' instead of 'children' for some questions, 'kids' should be accepted for all.