"Sí, yo estoy un poco triste."
Translation:Yes, I am a little sad.
"Yo" before the verb can be used for emphasis. Also preference for use changes by culture. There are 22 countries that speak Spanish and many more dialects. So, yes, it can be said either way and still be correct.
I'm having trouble understanding the difference between the "Estoy [emotion]" construction, and the "Me siento [emotion]" construction.
When using the verb "estar", you don't need the reflexive verb me/te/se/etc., but when using "sentir" you do. So is there a difference in the meanings of "Estoy triste" and "Me siento triste"? In English, "I'm sad" and "I feel sad" mean the same thing; is it different in Spanish?
I believe that these phrases are interchangeable when talking about physical or mental conditions/states, just as in english. However, Sentir is always reflexive (ie sentirse) when followed by an adjective or adverb, but not when followed by a noun.
Think of the "se" and "te" and "me," as meaning herself or himself, and yourself, and myself. These reflexive pronouns need to be included whenever a sentence is saying something in refernce to these things, even while, himself, herself, yourself, or myself, are not normally included in the English translation.
For example, "He feels happy," means, "He, himself, he feels happy." In a translation a "se" would be correspond with the "himself" in the more filled out sentence.
"Él se siente feliz."
""He, himself, he feels happy."
… which is generally said in English as being, "He is happy" This is kind of a cut down version of what is intended to be understood by a listener, which is: "He, himself, he feels happy."
There can a difference between what a sentence can basically mean and how it is normally said or translated.
Does anyone else get screwed by auto-correct? Unpredictably, my auto-correct will change "yo" to "you". And that's not the only word it changes.