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"Había muerto mucha gente en ese lugar."

Translation:A lot of people had died in that place.

5 years ago

32 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/CGiattino

Another randomly macabre sentence from Duolingo!

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/errant1
errant1
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The sentence I just got before this was talking about somebody's whole family being killed...

DL needs therapy.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Tnmcleod

I would really like to know why the subject is after the verb. It sounds vaguely Yoda-ish.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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Away put your weapon, Tnmcleod. When level 25 attain, understand you will.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Carnaedy
CarnaedyPlus
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Because you can put it that way (verb-subject) in Spanish. It emphasizes the fact that people DIED (as opposed to lived) in that place instead of that PEOPLE died (as opposed to animals) in that place, which is meant by the more natural subject-verb order.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rmcgwn

I thought others might also want to know some generalizations about word order so here's a link that may be helpful. Emphasis appears to the best fit.

http://spanish.about.com/od/word-order/a/verb-before-subject.htm

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/brendals

can i say, mucha gente habia muerto en ese lugar.....? is semantic order important?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rspreng

Who knows? :) It is confusing. It seems that either order is "OK" but that the subject often follows the verb, especially when sentences get longer and more complicated.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Wayne

(my non expert opinion) I would have used that order for a statement, and would have used the duolingo order for a question.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/stertell1
stertell1
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I agree.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MatthewOpe

Yes you can say it like that. I live in México and that's right

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/warrio1010
warrio1010
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Why is it not 'Habian'? Wouldn't 'A lot of people' be 'they (ellos/ellas)'?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/namayani

"la gente," though it refers to many people, its a singular noun. You can think of it as "the crowd" or "a group of people." Notice how in English you'd have (I;m using present perfect here to indicate the difference) "Many people have died here" vs "a large crowd/group of people has died here" (I know it sounds a bit odd, but jsut trying to illustrate this)

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dnoj
dnoj
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not ok to use "in that location" ?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MikeWeiss

I'm confused as to why this isn't muchas personas I remember someone on here once saying that gente refers more to a people rather than some people. Like germans or republicans for example

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jellonz
jellonz
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In some cases either is acceptable. I think "muchas personas" should be OK here. Did you use "habian" with it, or "habia"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/aathompson43

... but look at these walk-in closets!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/anomalousjack

Can someone explain to me why 'mucha' is used here in preference to 'mucho'. Is it infering that the people who died are all women?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RyagonIV
RyagonIV
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Gente is a feminine noun. That's all. No mention of the genders of the people.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linguismo

Please if anyone can explain, why don't we need direct object pronoun 'la' before verb phrase? I am really trying hard to understand when to use them and when not to. Just seems random sometimes?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kcmurphy
kcmurphyPlus
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When you use a direct object pronoun, it is because an action is being performed on the object. In this case, many people died; nothing is happening to them.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/limpidus
limpidus
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Does it have to refer to 'la gente'? Can't it be 'I had killed a lot of people in that place' or 'He had killed a lot of people at that place'?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lindafraser
lindafraser
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The meaning of the words "había muerto" is "had died". To say "had killed", you would say "había matado" instead.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Rakudajin

"there had died a lot of people in that place"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/fpetraitis

"there were a lot of dead people in that place" seems make sense

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DoctorStrange17

Creepy.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Tristan147258

It says habia is she had but there is no "she had" in the sentence...

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RyagonIV
RyagonIV
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Había is the general 1st- and 3rd-person singular imperfect tense of the helping verb haber, so it's mainly used in forming the past perfect tense. This conjugation form is usually translated as "I had", "he had", "she had", "it had", or "you had" (usted form).

The main verb in this sentence is morir - to die. It's an intransitive verb, so it doesn't take an object, so the only person mentioned here - mucha gente - must be the subject. It's the people who had died, not she.

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Juicy_Maffews

Why isn't morir conjugated to "habia morido"?

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RyagonIV
RyagonIV
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Simplest answer: it's irregular. :)

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/StacyKincer

The word bank did not provide the word for place.

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RyagonIV
RyagonIV
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The Spanish course is very oversaturated with possible answers, so you might have to look for a synonym, like "spot" or "location".

3 months ago