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  5. "Nunca voy a ninguna parte."

"Nunca voy a ninguna parte."

Translation:I never go anywhere.

April 30, 2014

21 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Thakelo

Yes, you already worked out the answer.

This is not a future tense because there is no infinitive verb following the "voy a..." part.

It's much simpler than that.

The present tense is used for both saying things that are currently happening and to talk about things that happen on a regular basis. The latter is what's being used here.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/territech

Throughout Duolingo, and in other programs as well, we see the Spanish indicative case being used when in English the present progressive would be used. Thus "Yo voy" can mean either "I go" or "I am going." I see nothing in this Spanish sentence to indicate that it has to be translated as "I never go" rather than "I am never going." I think both translations should be accepted, because we don't have a context in which to determine the intent of the Spanish sentence.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MexicoMadness

I put "I am never going anywhere" which I thought would also be correct, but was marked wrong. So I reported it.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/CattleRustler

I reread this thread and can't believe how dumb I was to even ask lol. I know the Ir + a + Inf formula and use it quite often. Last night I neglected to notice the Inf was missing. I should lay off the beer when Duoing, lol.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Linda_from_NJ

Have done the same myself. Still, this is a good thread because it's a humorous way of driving the point home that you can't get tense without a verb!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/yimantuwingyai

I don't understand why "parte" is used. "ninguna parte" means no part so how does that translate to anywhere?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BjornArthursson

it doesn't need an infinitive verb. the present tense can also imply plural, especially with verbs like ir, hacer, llamar that are used daily


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/derek821493

Whats wrong with 'I never go to any part'? Is that not right too?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/amyhengst

said the same...still marked wrong


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Micah410086

Can anyone explain why it's ninguna and not ningún or ninguno?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Doc0048

Hi Micah410086! Because "parte" is feminine, so "ninguna". "Ningún", "ninguno" is masculine.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/CattleRustler

i am never going anywhere - isnt voy a simple future tense?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rspreng

I think the 'a' is the preposition 'to' Voy a + infinitive is a future, but no following infinitive in this sentence


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/elissaf1

Nope. Present tense means (more or less) I'm going (somewhere).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/HableEspanol

This statement is without any sense because it's only possible for a dead person. That cannot speak or write. Please DL use statements that make sense!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Trachurus1

The sentence is valid for someone who never moves (e.g. out of the hospítal)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Linabuela

"I am never going anywhere" pls why is this marked Wrong?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ClaryBijl-

What is wrong with " I am never going anywhere "?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/FredGold

ninguna is negative so should it be nowhere..?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Christina737752

When do you use ningún/ninguna and algún/alguna?

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