"क्या उसने शराब पी है?"

Translation:Has he drunk alcohol?

July 30, 2018

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Can't this also mean "Did he drink alcohol?"


For that you should omit the 'है'.

So, "Did he drink alcohol?" = "क्या उसने शराब पी?"


What does उसने mean? Why not उसे ?


"ने" indicates that you are speaking in the past tense.


I think this is the past construction for transitive verbs so it takes 'ne'


'She' was marked incorrect . does anyone know why?


confused here. How come it's not "kya usane sherab piya hei"... isn't 'piya' the the past transitive form? Why 'pi' only?


In some tenses, transitive verbs (verbs which can have direct objects) take the gender and number of their object(s) rather than the subject. Here, the verb पीना is conjugating with its object शराब which is feminine. So, the feminine past tense form पी has been used. पिया is the masculine past tense form that can be seen in क्या उसने दूध पिया है? (Has he drunk milk?) where दूध is masculine.


Can we use vaha instead of उसने? If not can you explain the formation of उसने here? Also how does using है makes the sentence a perfect verb form?


When you have transitive verbs (verbs which can have direct objects) in the simple past tense and perfective tenses, the subject takes a ने. The verb then conjugates with its object.
When the subject is यह/वह the addition of this ने makes them इसने/उसने respectively.

The present perfect tense is basically the sentence in the simple past tense with a है added to the end. Similarly, the past perfect is the sentence in the simple past tense with a था at the end.

Eg: Simple past - उसने शराब पी - He drank alcohol
Present perfect- उसने शराब पी है - He has drunk alcohol
Past perfect- उसने शराब पी थी - He had drunk alcohol
(Note that we've used the feminine form पी because शराब is feminine)


Lost again. So a personal pronoun changes when a transitive verb gets put in the past by adding -ne?? What happens if it's old Aamir, does -ne get added then too? Also, didn't we already learn the past tense where just था got added to the verb and the subject didn't change at all? Or am I confused? It would really help me if there would be an overview of for instance the verb 'drink' in rows, showing I, you, he/she, we, you, they in all the tenses including the have to and should's. Can I find that anywhere? Because I also read your answer to Paul376479's question and I have no idea what you're saying. Thank you in advance, Vinay ...


The difference in how transitive and intransitive verbs conjugate is only for certain tenses.

The first past tense that you learnt, which was used to talk about habitual actions in the past, is not one of them. In this tense, both transitive and intransitive verbs conjugate with the subject as usual.
आमिर शराब पीता था - Aamir used to drink alcohol (transitive verb - conjugating with आमिर)
आमिर जाता था - Aamir used to go (intransitive verb - conjugating with आमिर)

The preterite tense ('simple past' of English), used to talk about one-time events that happened in the past, does depend on whether the verb is transitive or intransitive. For intransitive verbs, the verb conjugates with the subject as usual while for transitive verbs, it conjugates with its object(s). To denote that a transitive verb is not conjugating with it, a 'ne' is added to the subject (whether it is a noun or pronoun).
आमिर ने शराब पी - Aamir drank alcohol (transitive verb- conjugating with शराब which is why the feminine form पी is used instead of masculine पिया)
आमिर गया - Aamir went (intransitive verb - conjugating with आमिर)

Similarly, perfect tenses depend on whether the verb is transitive or intransitive. (The present perfect form is the simple past form followed by a form of है and the past perfect form is the simple past form followed by a form of था).
Present perfect:
आमिर ने शराब पी है - Aamir has drunk alcohol (transitive)
आमिर गया है - Aamir has gone (intransitive)
Past perfect:
आमिर ने शराब पी थी - Aamir had drunk alcohol (transitive)
आमिर गया था - Aamir had gone (intransitive)

Note: While adding ने to nouns is straightforward, it somewhat behaves like a postposition in that adding it to a pronoun changes the form of the pronoun (called the 'ergaitive case' form).
Eg: मैं+ने - मैंने, हम+ने -हमने, तू+ने - तूने, तुम+ने -तुमने, आप+ने - आपने, वह+ने - उसने, यह+ने - इसने, ये+ने - इन्होंने, वे+ने - उन्होंने, कौन+ने - किसने etc


Thanks for this demonstration. You are the man Vinay !


So glad I found this again, still find it very confusing. Will copy and save it! Thanks, Vinay.


Hi Vinay So the way I was taught in India is that yes, transitive verbs add the 'ne' to the subject. AND that would include old Aamir... e.g. Aamir ne doodh piya. The subject won't change at all for non-transitive verbs. e.g. Aamir so gaya (Aamir slept)


I am English and would never say Has he drunk alcohol. If he DRANK alcohol he may be DRUNK. Has he DRANK alcohol would be correct.


Better is Did he DRINK alcohol.


Drank is the preterite tense form and drunk is the participle form in modern English. So, 'He has drunk alcohol' is the correct present perfect tense form though 'He has drank alcohol' would not be unheard of, even from native speakers such as yourself.

'Did he drink alcohol' would be क्या उसने शराब पी? in Hindi (without the है).


So if I am correct in understanding, पी is the feminine version of पिया. Are other verbs created in the same way? is पी an irregular verb? for example, खाया is masc, so what would be feminine? खा ? खी ? or something else? And for something like देखा, it would be देखी that is feminine, right?


Yes, पी is the feminine version of पिया.
For most other verbs, you just need to replace the ा ending in the masculine singular form with an ी ending for the feminine form. The feminine forms of खाया and देखा are thus खायी and देखी.
It is only when the masculine singular form ends in िया that they behave like पीना (probably because saying इयी sounds awkward). So, the feminine forms of किया (did), दिया (gave) and लिया (took) are की, दी and ली.


It should be "Did he/she drink alcohol?"

  • 1124

What's the difference between ".... pi." and "... pi he." ?


'Drank' and 'has drunk' i think. Pi tha would be 'had drunk'


It's "Has he drank alcohol?", not 'drunk' right?


In modern English, 'drank' is used as the past tense form in the preterite tense ('He drank alcohol' -उसने शराब पी) while 'drunk' is used in the perfect tenses ('He has drunk alcohol' - उसने शराब पी है).


Drank is wrong English


Don't agree. As we know, English is a very slippery language. I am Australian and "I drank.." is definitely OK in modern Aust English anyway. It is past for having drunk something....to drink


why is "Did he drink alcohol" wrong


Hi.. Because whenever in the past tense you add 'hai' at the end... it means you have to say 'has' ... Did he drink alcohol would be: "Kya usne sherab pi" But when you add that 'hai' at the end it becomes Has he drunk alcohol. OK? :)


Different tense. 'Did he drink alcohol?' will be 'क्या उसने शराब पी?" (without the है).


So it should be 'he drank sharab' right ?


No... any sentence that STARTS with the word KYA... demands a YES or a NO answer... So in this case it has to be HAS HE DRUNK ALCOHOL because then it's YES he has or NO he has not. Get it?

  • 1087

"Has he drunk wine" marked wrong.


This should be accepted as well " is he drunk?


Sorry but not in this language... how do you figure it could be accepted? It is past tense for a start. And the question is 'has (te) he drunk alcohol?' clear and simple. USNE is indicative of a transitive past form in hindi... and what did he drink (what is object of the transitive sense?) .. he drank ALCOHOL. .. and the question demands a yes or no... HAS HE DRUNK ALCOHOL?

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