"J'aime manger des frites."

Translation:I like to eat fries.

March 28, 2013

This discussion is locked.


Aw, totally heard "J'aime mange des fruits"


Can't be "fruits" because if you don't hear well the vowel sound "i" vs "ui", you should hear the final T sound, that is mute in "fruits".


Why is the word "des" not consistant in the answers "some" is somtimes there and sometimes not


Because in English you may use "some", or not.

In French "des" is required when the meaning is "more than one", because "des" is the plural of "un/une", which does not exist as an article in English.


i too got confused between fruits and frites... i thought frites means fruits!!


Yes me too. Even the slow recordings can be hard to hear.


u got that right


My thoughts exactly


When do you use manger?


"Manger" is the infinitive form of the French word for "eat".

English has 2 forms of the infinitive: the full infinitive ("to eat") and the bare infinitive ("eat"). Examples:
Full infinitive: "I like to eat many things."
Full infinitive: "I am going to eat some pie."
Full infinitive: "I am able to eat the entire world."
Bare infinitive: "I can eat whatever I want."
Bare infinitive: "Please help me eat this."

But this is not an infinitive: "I eat pie all the time."

In the first 5 examples, other verbs are being applied to the verb "eat":
-"am going"
-"am able"
These verbs are not being used as infinitives themselves, but they are being applied to the infinitive. When one verb is being applied to another verb, that's a clue that maybe an infinitive is being used.

I hope this helps you understand the infinitive a little more. The Wikipedia article for Infinitive will tell you a lot more. If you can recognize when an infinitive is used, then you'll know when to use "manger".


Until you go into other tenses. In both French and English you get all sorts of non-infinitive conjugations woth auxiliary verbs.


To put it more simply for this instance, "manger" means "to eat." So, you would use "manger" in instances such as above: "J'aime manger ..." = "I like TO EAT ..."

However, you wouldn't say "I 'to eat' a sandwich," so the verb "manger" is conjugated (modified to reflect the voice.) When congugated, it becomes "Je mange/I eat," "Tu manges/you eat," "Nous mangeons/we eat," etc. Hope that is helpful!


Thanks, much more helpful.


A simpler explanation, is that if there are two verbs or more in a sentence, the second verb and the ones after the second are left in infinitive form. Take the sentence, "J'aime manger les pain". Aime (aimer) is the first verb, so it's conjugated. Manger is the second verb and is therefore left in infinitive.


There is a simple trick to that we learn in school. If you switch the verb you have to the french word for sell (vendre) you get your andser. If the phrase makes sense with "vendre" then the verb ends in "er" and if it makes sense with "vendu" then it ends with "é". The trick is "vendre" ends with "re" so re and er, same letters and vendu ends with the same sound as the name for the letter "é", which is "e accent aigUE".


The verb "aimer" stands both for "to love" and "to like". Please take this into consideration for future improvements on this application.


There is a difference of depth of feeling between like and love. In French, these difference are not expressed by a separate verb but by usage and adverbs:

  • aimer (+ aimer bien, aimer beaucoup) + inanimate object = to like, to enjoy
  • aimer + people = to love

  • to like + inanimate object = aimer (+ aimer bien, aimer beaucoup)

  • to like + people = aimer bien, aimer beaucoup

  • to love + inanimate object = adorer

  • to love + people = aimer


Je suis d'accord!


So "er" is the French "ing" ?


No, it's "to" in front of a verb


So its actually french frites


l'aime is used as like with food, as French use j'adore for when they really love food. They do not say they love food every time they like it. I believe j'aime is I like when used for describing food unless you want to emphasis to j'adore

[deactivated user]

    Can anyone tell me the difference between fries,chips,and crisps?


    In the US French Fries are usually fried pieces of potato usually about a finger width or two in thickness and as long as the potato. In the UK what we call French Fries they call chips. In the US what we call chips they call crisps. Chips are thin slices that are hard and usually in a bag. Google image French Fries and Potato Chips.

    [deactivated user]

      thanks :)


      Australia mostly calls them chips/ hot chips too, however the American fast food chains like Hungry Jack's(Burger King's Australian branch) call them fries.


      Hmm, I thought the definite article was used with general statements... so why not "J'aime manger les frites"? Does the use of "des" refer to specific fries, then?


      "j'aime les frites" is a general statement.

      But in this sentence, "frites" is the direct object of "manger" (not aime), so it is no more a general statement but the plural of "j'aime manger une frite".


      Oui! Je d'accord! J'aime manger des frites aussi!^-^


      je suis d'accord


      Yes! I agree! I like to eat fries!

      So do I!!! :)


      Sometimes it takes j'aime as 'I like' and other times it takes it as 'I love.' Commmon duolingy.


      Please go to Basics 2 main page, scroll down and you will find "Tips & Notes" where the rule is explained.


      Used 'i love' because before i was wrong for saying 'i like ' for 'j'aime, however , this time i was wrong for saying. I love?


      you can't say french fries?!


      it said j'aime manger des frites but on the j'aime drop down below it said I love aswell as I like , I typed in I love and it said I was wrong ? it works every other time I do it


      I accept your authority as a french native, but does this mean Francophones will not casually exaggerate to say, "I love eating fries!"?


      Yes of course, if they speak English as well. Otherwise, in French "I love eating fries" is "j'adore manger des frites !"


      Soo I noticed a distinction between the female and male voices with regards to 'frites.'

      I hear the male voice says 'fritah' while the female voice says 'freet'.

      I believe the female voice has it right, but I'm confused.


      why is manger with an R at the end?


      That is the infinitive form (= not conjugated).


      is it wrong to answer it : I love eat some fries?


      Yes. This wrong. It is right to say "I love TO eat some fries"


      Because manger is infinitive, thus: to eat.


      well i said i love eating french fries and it was wrong 'cause i had to typ like instead of love, but learned in school aimer is to love


      Really, "J'aime manger des frites" HAS to be "I like eating fries"? "I love eating fries" is not correct? When French people use aimer is it more like "like" than "love"? If you really really love fries--like they're your superlative, favorite food, what verb would you use instead of aimer? How would you say, "I love eating fries"?


      There's this rule with "aimer" where "j'aime + (food/objects/etc.)" = "I like (food/objects/etc.)" and "j'aime + (people/pets/etc.)" = "I love + (people/pets/etc.)"

      I don't know every detail about it, but once when I was working on a French lesson on Duo I translated "J'aime + (some food item)" as "I love (this particular food item)" and I got marked wrong. Immediately after I got a little note saying that "j'aime" means "I like" when used with food/objects and "I love" when used with people/pets. I don't know if you can use "J'aime les frites" to mean "I love fries" for exaggeration, there might be another verb for that kind of love.


      "J'aime manger des frites." so I typed "I like to eat some fries". Is "I like eating fries" the same translation? or is "I like eating fries" used differently in a sentence in comparison to "I like to eat some fries"? thanks


      Did anyone else hear "J'ai mangé des frites."? Hard to hear the difference between j'ai mangé and j'aime manger.


      I find the male voice understandable, however the female voice is just impossible to understand--even one word at a time. I've missed questions owing to her sometimes complete mispronunciation. And, I have a musical ear and can normally hear what is being said if it is correctly pronounced. The voice should be updated drastically. It's frustrating....and I had some decent French instruction in high school and college.


      I SAID FRUITS!!!!!!!!!!!!


      At the end of the French "fruit(s)" you should not hear any T sound, so the end sound is EE


      What is the difference between: mange, manger, mangez, mangeon?


      Please read the Tips & Notes in all lessons.

      "manger" is the infinitive form of the verb, which means that it is its basic form, when it is not conjugated.

      The conjugation of "manger" in indicative present is: je mange, tu manges, il/elle/on mange, nous mangeons, vous mangez, ils/elles mangent.

      In this sentence, the main action is expressed by the conjugated verb "aime". The second verb is the object of "aime" and as such it has to be in infinitive: j'aime manger = I like to eat.


      Im still confused with mange mangent manger mangeons mangoes mangoose monge mangy sorry where were we?


      Please turn on your PC and come back to this page where explanations are all over the place.

      Learn French in just 5 minutes a day. For free.