"जूलिया और नेहा भारत आती हैं।"

Translation:Julia and Neha come to India.

August 4, 2018

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I am confused... why does the verb aati doesn't go plural (aate) if there are two subjects?


Because of the gender. It's feminine plural, which remains the same. Now, if it said जूलिया और राज, then it would be आते. Or if it were more than one male


Of course! Damn, should have remembered. Thanks!


I didn't even know this resource existed. Thank yku for the link!!


I understand this explanation re feminine plural. However, in some post I read that when there is a built in "to", then the noun becomes oblique case. Then, why not आते? How is it not the oblique case? Thinking aloud: Or does it become oblique only if there is one noun, while we have two nouns here, i.e. जूलिया और नेहा ?


The oblique form is only used on the word before a postposition (men, ko, ke, etc., which correspond to preposition in English : in, of). In "Julia aur Neha Bharat aati hain", there isn't any postposition. If the sentence were "Neha aur Julia ghar mein aati hain", "mein" = postposition (which in English would have been the preposition "in", which woul have introduced the complement of place "house"= ghar). Ghar is the word that is concerned by the oblique form. (However, in this case, "ghar" does not change). I hope this is going to help you !

आते is a verb and is never put in the oblique form. However, it has the marks of the gender and the plural.


Yes, I understand it now. Thanks for your explanation. A lingot from me.


The sentence says "Julia and Neha are coming to India" correct? Should it be Bharat ko? Or is to just implied


As ZaynSaifullah said, चलना is a verb which involves movement, you doesn't need any postposition


Thank you for clarifying our doubt


Due to the feminine gender "aati" is used. The plural nature in this case is indicated by "hain" which would have been "hai" in case it was a single girl.


So it should have been "aatin" (with the dot), instead of "aati".


Hi, I am a native german speaker and sometimes it accidently happens that i write UND instead of AND. anyway, it is alway counted as wrong, coz of this single letter only. I know from learing Spanish on Duolingo, that small written mistakes are not ruining my run - the mistake is mentions as being underlined in correct sentence expample. Is there anything that can be done? I end up loosing my lifes every time by typing UND whereas the translation of the sentence is actually correct from my end. Greeting, Schtine


Not all typos are overlooked in Spanish. I get got by typos in Spanish too. I've also had typos overlooked in Hindi. Perhaps take a little more time for proofreading, before hitting the check button. You are at level 12, so you must be doing something right!

शुभ कामनाएँ


When you are marked wrong, you can click the flag at the bottom corner to claim that your answer should be considered correct. If the people updating things agree, they can enter your suggestion so it won't keep happening.


Yep! They do review it, eventually. I've received several messages saying that my requested change has been accepted. It may have taken a long time, but it did happen.


Why is their no use of "ko" for the word "to"? Julia and Neha come to India, shouldnt that be Bhaarat ko aati hain?


I'm not a native speaker but am a heritage speaker. Sometimes native speakers use को like that but it is generally considered improper. As the dative particle, it's only used after the indirect object when something is being given e.g जुलिया राज को पानि देती है.

Perhaps an easier way to also think about this is that in most verbs that involve moving (जाना, आना, चलना) have the preposition "built in."


To doesn't always translate to "ko". It depends on the context. To give an example : "I gave an apple to Radha" would translate to " maine Radha ko ek sèb diya" Here "to" is indicating the transfer of the apple from me to Radha and would be translated to "ko"


I used an ampersand instead of the word 'and', and it is marking the sentence incorrect.


Why is feminine the only one that remains ending this way when pluralized? When masculine and oblique gets treated the same to end with "te".


What does aathee mean?


Aati (आती) is the feminine form of the verb aana.. it is also plular form in this scentene because of the (हैं) Aathee (आथी) is not a hindi word.


Julia and neha (are) come to india


Why is it that the word 'to' isn't in the Hindi translation? When I read this sentence I see 'Julia and Neha (are) come India.', not come to India? And is it correct in saying Hindi? Its not Hindish or Hindese or Hindian? Is the difference between Hindi and Hindu the masculine or feminine versions? I dont know where else I might ask these questions and some of y'all seem to be already well versed in the language and culture. (& I dont like being ignorant, which at this point I am, so an honest reply would be very appreciated!) Thank you!


In this instance to is not necessary in Hindi. This is the same in many other languages.

The language is Hindi. Hindu is a person who is on the path of Sanatan Dharm. There is no Hindese, Hindish, or Hindian. But, you may hear about Hinglish, which is a lot like Spanglish.


The first three dictionary hover hints are some version of "know", so I wrote "Julia and Neha know India." Marked wrong, of course. How would you say that?


जूलिया और नेहा भारत को जानती हैं


Can't this mean "Julia and Neha know India"?


I think that this sentence is gramatically wrong


The translation says "...come yo India" but when I hover over the word "ati" the tio says "know, speak". It's a bug I guess, right?


Ati has multiple meanings, depending on the context.

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